365 previous year UPSC Prelims Polity questions are on this page, from 1996 to 2025, across 30 exam years and 29 chapters. Parliament is the largest chapter, followed by Miscellaneous, Fundamental Rights and the Higher Judiciary. Filter by chapter to practise one topic, or by year to see how a single paper treated Polity. Every option opens with its correct answer and a full explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 81–90 of 365 questions
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UPSC 2020Polity · Fundamental Rights
Q81. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/ reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)? 1. Preamble 2. Directive Principles of State Policy 3. Fundamental Duties Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Preamble of the Indian Constitution reflects the principles of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) by emphasizing justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity. The Article 3 of Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) (1948) says that "Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person."
Statement 2 is correct: DPSPs are the principles that aim at providing social and economic justice and set the path towards the welfare state. This DPSP has a resemblance with UDHR Article 22. The article 22 of UDHR 1948 says that "Everyone, as a member of society, has the right to social security."
Statement 3 is correct: Fundamental duties (Article 51A) are basically civic and moral obligations of all citizens of India. Similarly Article 29 of the UDHR emphasizes the reciprocal relationship between individual rights and duties to the community.
Exam tip:
You can try, The "NOT" approach for all statements, this tests the improbability of negating a statement--if denying its impact seems highly unlikely, the statement is plausibly true.
UPSC 2020Polity · Directive Principles of State Policy
Q82. Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of a Welfare State?
Explanation
DPSP embodies the concept of a ‘welfare state’. A welfare state refers to a concept of government in which the state plays a key role in the economic and social well-being of its citizens. Article 38 (1) states that "The State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may a social order in which justice, social, economic and political, shall inform all the institutions of the national life".
UPSC 2020Polity · Directive Principles of State Policy
Q83. With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. They shall be enforceable by courts. 2. They shall not be enforceable by any court 3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the State. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Part IV of the Constitution of India deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which are outlined in Articles 36 to 51.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The DPSP are not enforceable by courts. According to Article 37, the DPSPs are not justiciable (i.e., they cannot be enforced through legal action in courts). They are not legally binding and do not carry any legal consequences if violated.
Statement 2 is correct: The provisions of the Directive Principles of State Policy are not enforceable by any court. This means that citizens cannot directly approach the courts for the enforcement of these principles, unlike Fundamental Rights (which are enforceable in court).
Statement 3 is correct: Although DPSPs are not enforceable by courts, they are intended to influence the state’s policies and lawmaking process. They act as guiding principles for the government to ensure that the laws passed are aligned with the values of social justice, equality, and welfare.
Exam tip:
"If DPSPs were enforceable by courts, then what would be the difference between DPSPs and Fundamental Rights?"" That would make Part IV = Part III, which destroys the constitutional balance, hence S1 is likely false. Eliminate options A and C."
UPSC 2020Polity · Directive Principles of State Policy
Q84. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by
Explanation
Article 50 (Part IV, Directive Principle of State Policy) specifically addresses the separation of the judiciary from the executive. This principle is rooted in liberal-intellectual ideals, which align with the doctrine of separation of powers. The separation ensures that the legislative, executive, and judicial branches function independently, preventing the concentration of power in one branch. By doing so, it helps safeguard individual rights and freedoms, crucial for a functioning democracy.
UPSC 2020Polity · Directive Principles of State Policy
Q85. In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following types of citizens? 1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs. 1,00,000. 2. Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs. 2,00,000. 3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than Rs. 3,00,000. 4. All Senior Citizens Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Free legal services are available to the groups of society that are listed under Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, they are:
Women and children Members of SC/ST Industrial workmen Victims of mass disaster, violence, flood, drought, earthquake industrial disaster Disabled persons Persons in custody Persons whose annual income does not exceed 1 lakh or may be prescribed by the State Government Beggars or those who have fallen victim to human trafficking.
Statement 2 is correct: Income limit for Transgender is Rs. 2,00,000.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Though there is a provision for free aid to members of SC and ST community, the Legal Services Authority does not mention Other Backward Classes (OBC) while providing free legal services.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The provision of free legal services to Senior Citizens is dependent on the rules framed by the respective state governments who can prescribe income limits. As a result, not all elderly people qualify for free legal assistance.
Exam tip:
For S4, "All Senior citizens" is an absolute claim, with this logic even Tata and Ambanis are also possible beneficiaries!, hence likely false. Eliminate options B and D.
UPSC 2020Polity · Systems of Government
Q86. A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which:
Explanation
A Parliamentary System of Government is characterized by the executive (Government) being accountable to the legislature (Parliament). Its other key features generally include:
Collective Responsibility: The Council of Ministers, led by the Prime Minister, is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha (Lower House in India). Motion of No Confidence: The government can be removed by the Parliament through a vote of no confidence. Executive from the Legislature: The Prime Minister and Ministers are drawn from the legislature and remain in office as long as they have its confidence.
UPSC 2020Polity · Systems of Government
Q87. A constitutional government by definition is a:
Explanation
A constitutional government is a system in which the powers of the government are limited by a constitution. This ensures that government actions are guided by established laws rather than arbitrary decisions. The core idea of a constitutional government is limited government, where authority is regulated, checked, and balanced by a legal framework.
UPSC 2020Polity · Parliament
Q88. With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct? 1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable sets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc. 2. A specified portion of each MP fund must benefit SC/ST populations. 3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year. 4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all work under implementation every year. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The objective of the scheme is to enable MPs to recommend works of developmental nature with emphasis on the creation of durable community assets based on the locally felt needs to be taken up in their Constituencies.
Statement 2 is correct: M.Ps are to recommend every year, works costing at least 15% of the MPLADS entitlement for the year for areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste population and 7.5% for areas inhabited by S.T. population.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The released funds under the MPLAD scheme are non-lapsable i.e. if the money is not utilised, it gets carried to the next year subject to the fulfillment of certain criterion.
Statement 4 is correct: The district authority should visit and inspect at least 10% of the works every year. It is also expected to involve the MPs in such activities.
UPSC 2020Polity · Parliament
Q89. Consider the following statements: 1. According to the Constitution of India a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State. 2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian Constitution under article 173(a) lays down the following qualifications for a person to be chosen as a member of the state legislature, such as - He must be a citizen of India. He must take an oath or affirmation before the person the Election Commission has designated for this purpose. He must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of the legislative council and not less than 25 years of age in the case of the legislative assembly. while a one becomes voter at the age of 18. He must possess other qualifications prescribed by Parliament.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As per Section 8 of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951, a person convicted of an offense and sentenced to imprisonment for two years or more will be disqualified from the date of conviction. This disqualification remains in effect for six additional years after their release. Hence, the disqualification is not permanent.
UPSC 2020Polity · Parliament
Q90. Consider the following statements: 1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such a place as he/she thinks fit. 2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions. 3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 85(1), the Constitution gives the power to the President to summon a session of Parliament to meet at such a place as he/she thinks fit. The gap between two sessions must not exceed 6 months.
Statement 2 is incorrect: By convention, Parliament meets for three sessions in a year. However the Constitution does not stipulate it. Article 85(1) of the Indian Constitution states "The President shall from time to time summon each House of Parliament to meet, and six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session." This means that according to the Constitution of India, Parliament must meet at least once every six months, but the number of sessions is not fixed.
Statement 3 is correct: There is no provision about the minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
81
2020
(d) 1, 2 and 3
82
2020
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy
83
2020
(d) 2 and 3 only
84
2020
(b) A Directive Principle of State Policy
85
2020
(a) 1 and 2 only
86
2020
(b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it
87
2020
(d) limited government
88
2020
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
89
2020
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
90
2020
(c) 1 and 3 only
What UPSC has tested in Polity
Parliament, Fundamental Rights, the Higher Judiciary and Local Government together account for the largest share of Polity questions in this set.
Recent papers test statements about institutions: the Governor, the President’s ordinance and pardoning powers, Lokpal, Scheduled Areas and the Speaker’s office.
Older papers lean on single-fact recall: which Article, which Amendment, which Schedule.
The 2025 paper’s Polity questions fall in Parliament, President, Governor, Constitutional Amendment, Schedules, Centre-State Relations, Local Government and non-constitutional bodies.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Polity?
This page covers 365 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Polity, asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
Which Polity chapters has UPSC asked about most?
In this set, Parliament has the most questions, followed by the Miscellaneous group, Fundamental Rights, the Higher Judiciary, Local Government, the Directive Principles and the constitutional bodies. Small chapters such as Citizenship and Judicial Review have only one question each.
How do I practise Polity PYQs chapter by chapter?
Use the Chapter filter on this page, or open a chapter link such as Preamble or Parliament. Each chapter page gives its own questions, answer key and the facts UPSC has tested, so you can finish one topic before moving to the next.
Does this page include the 2025 UPSC Prelims paper?
Yes. The 2025 paper’s Polity questions are included, and you can open them alone with the Year filter set to 2025. They cover Parliament, the President’s powers, the Governor, Schedules, Panchayats, Lokpal and Centre-State bodies.
Are cancelled or disputed UPSC questions included?
No. Questions UPSC cancelled, and questions where the available answer key is disputed, are left out so that every question here has a single correct answer with an explanation you can rely on.
