365 previous year UPSC Prelims Polity questions are on this page, from 1996 to 2025, across 30 exam years and 29 chapters. Parliament is the largest chapter, followed by Miscellaneous, Fundamental Rights and the Higher Judiciary. Filter by chapter to practise one topic, or by year to see how a single paper treated Polity. Every option opens with its correct answer and a full explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 71–80 of 365 questions
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UPSC 2021Polity · Constitutional Bodies
Q71. At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
Explanation
The Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) is the nodal agency for the implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. The ministry deals with forest and livelihood objectives at the national level.
UPSC 2021Polity · Governance
Q72. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements: 1. The N. Gopalaswamy Iyenger Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it. 2. In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: In the report ‘Reorganisation of the Machinery of Central Government’ (1950) Sh. N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar, suggested the grouping of ministries, improvement in the capabilities of the personnel, and also in the working of the Organisation and Method(O&M) Division. It nowhere mentions that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it. Moreover, it was the 1st ARC that suggested a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
Statement 2 is correct: In 1970, on the basis of the recommendations of the Administrative Reforms Commission, the Department of Personnel was set up.
Exam tip:
For S1, "Designated solely" is an extreme phrase and thus highly improbable to be true. Designating someone of such a high post for such small specific task, is too impractical to be suggested by a committee, hence likely false.
UPSC 2021Polity · Miscellaneous
Q73. With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/ her right. 2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Parole is not a right but a privilege granted by prison authorities. Parole is a discretionary relief granted to prisoners under specific conditions. The decision to grant parole lies with the prison authorities or state authorities, and they may deny parole even if a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, depending on factors such as security risks or the nature of the crime committed.
Statement 2 is correct: Each state has its own parole rules, governed by respective State Prison Manuals and the Prisons Act, 1894. These rules outline eligibility criteria, conditions, and the authority responsible for granting parole.
Exam tip:
For S1, Trap phrase: "cannot be denied" an absolute phrase implying parole becomes a right. But in India:
Parole is not a Fundamental Right, nor is it automatically granted. Even if a "sufficient case" is made, granting parole is at the discretion of the competent authority. Hence likely false.
UPSC 2021Polity · Miscellaneous
Q74. With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. 2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Judicial custody does not mean detention in a police station. Instead, the accused is sent to jail under the magistrate’s orders. Police custody, on the other hand, involves detention at a police station for investigation. Judicial custody ensures that the accused is under judicial supervision and not directly handled by the police.
Statement 2 is correct: During judicial custody, the police cannot interrogate the accused without prior approval from the court. This provision protects the accused from undue pressure or custodial violence while ensuring due process.
Additional insight:
Judicial custody refers to a situation where an accused person is under the custody of the court and housed in a jail, whereas police custody means the accused is detained at a police station for investigation. These are governed by provisions under the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973.
Aspect
Judicial custody
Police custody
Authority
Under the jurisdiction of the court.
Under the jurisdiction of the police for investigation.
Detention location
The accused is sent to jail (prison or judicial lock-up).
The accused is kept in a police station lock-up.
Purpose
Ensures the accused does not tamper with evidence or influence witnesses while awaiting trial.
Allows police to interrogate the accused, gather evidence and proceed with the investigation.
Duration
Can extend up to 90 days for serious offences and 60 days for others.
Maximum 15 days, after which the accused must be presented before a magistrate.
Interrogation rights
Police need court permission to interrogate the accused in jail.
Police can directly question the accused without seeking court permission.
UPSC 2021Polity · Miscellaneous
Q75. With reference to casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements: 1. All casual workers are entitled for Employees Provident Fund coverage. 2. All casual workers are entitled for regular working hours and overtime payment. 3. The government can by a notification specify that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through its bank account. Which of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: EPF coverage is not universal for all casual workers. It applies to workers in establishments with 20 or more employees and only if they meet the eligibility criteria under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952. Many temporary, seasonal, or casual workers may not qualify.
Statement 2 is correct: Casual workers are entitled to regular working hours and overtime payment as per the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, and the Factories Act, 1948. These laws ensure that all workers, including casual labourers, have regulated working hours and are paid overtime wages at stipulated rates if they work beyond the prescribed hours.
Statement 3 is correct: The government can mandate wage payments through banking channels under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, which was amended by the Payment of Wages (Amendment) Act, 2017. This amendment allows the government to require industries and establishments to pay wages electronically or through bank transfers to enhance transparency and prevent exploitation.
UPSC 2020Polity · Basic Concepts
Q76. One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is
Explanation
The common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is the final goal of stateless and classless society, whereas means to achieve these final goals differ. A stateless society does refer to a society without a centralized government or formal state institutions, it typically implies a system where people govern themselves through communal, decentralized methods without the need for a coercive state apparatus. According to Karl Marx, the State is an instrument of oppression and an organ of the bourgeoisie that only works for maintaining class dominance. Therefore, he strives for class struggle and revolution which will ultimately result in a stateless society. Mahatma Gandhi gave the concept of Ramarajya, an ideal society characterised by self-governing individuals living in harmony without centralised political authority. He believed in achieving this stateless society through non-violent means, emphasizing moral and ethical self-discipline. Gandhi’s vision aligns with the idea of enlightened anarchy.
UPSC 2020Polity · Basic Concepts
Q77. In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?
Explanation
Bureaucracy is the executive branch of government, responsible for implementing decisions made by the elected officials. Bureaucrats are selected through a merit-based process to manage state affairs. In India, the primary role of the bureaucracy is to ensure the execution of government policies. While political leadership may change with elections, the bureaucracy remains constant, providing stability and continuity in governance. This ensures that policies are carried out consistently, regardless of changes in the political leadership.
UPSC 2020Polity · Salient Features of the Constitution
Q78. Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India defines its basic structure in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy. 2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘Judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Basic Structure encompasses basic and core values like federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy which forms bedrock of the Indian Constitution. It cannot be amended by parliament under Art 368. Basic Structure Doctrine is a Judicially innovative doctrine and it was neither defined under Constitution nor it was defined by the Supreme Court or any other court.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 13(2) of the Constitution prohibits the Union or States from enacting laws that violate fundamental rights. Any such law, to the extent of its violation, is deemed void. This provision ensures judicial review to protect citizens’ rights and liberties.
Exam tip:
For S1, The word "defines" is a strong and rigid claim. Think practically: The Constitution is not a dictionary. It doesn’t explicitly list out or define "Basic Structure". Hence likely false. Eliminates option A and C.
UPSC 2020Polity · Preamble
Q79. The Preamble to the Constitution of India, is:
Explanation
The Preamble to the Constitution of India is part of the Constitution but lacks independent legal force. It outlines guiding principles like justice, liberty, and equality. The Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati (1973) affirmed it as integral to understanding the Constitution’s philosophy, although it doesn’t confer enforceable rights. It serves as a guiding tool for interpreting the Constitution’s objectives.
Additional insight:
In 1976, Preamble was amended by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act to add "Socialist, Secular, and Integrity". In the Berubari Union Case (1960), the Supreme Court had earlier held that the Preamble is not a source of power or substantive rights and has no independent legal effect. It also held that Preamble is not an operative part of the Constitution and lacks legal force.
UPSC 2020Polity · Fundamental Rights
Q80. Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporate protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination?
Explanation
The protection against untouchability is specifically provided under Article 17 of the Indian Constitution, which is part of the Right to Equality. Article 17 explicitly abolishes untouchability and makes its practice an offense. It is a direct form of discrimination based on caste, and its prohibition is a cornerstone of the right to equality in India. Articles 14 to 18 deals with ‘Right to Equality’:
Equality before Law (Article 14) Prohibition of discrimination based on grounds of religion, race, caste etc. (Article 15) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Article 16) Abolition of Untouchability (Article 17) Abolition of titles (Article 18)
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
71
2021
(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
72
2021
(b) 2 only
73
2021
(b) 2 only
74
2021
(b) 2 only
75
2021
(b) 2 and 3 only
76
2020
(a) the final goal of a stateless society
77
2020
(d) An Agency for the implementation of public policy
78
2020
(b) 2 only
79
2020
(d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts
80
2020
(d) Right to Equality
What UPSC has tested in Polity
Parliament, Fundamental Rights, the Higher Judiciary and Local Government together account for the largest share of Polity questions in this set.
Recent papers test statements about institutions: the Governor, the President’s ordinance and pardoning powers, Lokpal, Scheduled Areas and the Speaker’s office.
Older papers lean on single-fact recall: which Article, which Amendment, which Schedule.
The 2025 paper’s Polity questions fall in Parliament, President, Governor, Constitutional Amendment, Schedules, Centre-State Relations, Local Government and non-constitutional bodies.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Polity?
This page covers 365 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Polity, asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
Which Polity chapters has UPSC asked about most?
In this set, Parliament has the most questions, followed by the Miscellaneous group, Fundamental Rights, the Higher Judiciary, Local Government, the Directive Principles and the constitutional bodies. Small chapters such as Citizenship and Judicial Review have only one question each.
How do I practise Polity PYQs chapter by chapter?
Use the Chapter filter on this page, or open a chapter link such as Preamble or Parliament. Each chapter page gives its own questions, answer key and the facts UPSC has tested, so you can finish one topic before moving to the next.
Does this page include the 2025 UPSC Prelims paper?
Yes. The 2025 paper’s Polity questions are included, and you can open them alone with the Year filter set to 2025. They cover Parliament, the President’s powers, the Governor, Schedules, Panchayats, Lokpal and Centre-State bodies.
Are cancelled or disputed UPSC questions included?
No. Questions UPSC cancelled, and questions where the available answer key is disputed, are left out so that every question here has a single correct answer with an explanation you can rely on.