Constitutional Amendment: UPSC Previous Year Questions (Polity)
This page lists 15 previous year UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination (General Studies Paper-I) questions on Constitutional Amendment (Polity), asked between 2000 to 2024. Choose an option to see the correct answer and the full explanation on the same page.
Showing 1–10 of 15 questions
UPSC 2024Polity · Constitutional Amendment
Q1. As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of: 1. Addition 2. Variation 3. Repeal Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Part XX of the Indian Constitution outlines the procedure for amending the Constitution. Article 368, which falls under this part, states that Parliament, in the exercise of its constituent power, may amend any provision of the Constitution through addition, variation, or repeal, following the prescribed procedure. Addition: Introducing new provisions into the Constitution (e.g., Fundamental Duties were incorporated through the 42nd Amendment). Variation: Modifying existing provisions (e.g., the voting age was lowered from 21 to 18 by the 61st Amendment). Repeal: Removing provisions from the Constitution (e.g., Right to Property ceased to be a Fundamental Right after the 44th Amendment).
Exam tip:
You can try, The "NOT" approach for all statements, this tests the improbability of negating a statement--if denying its impact seems highly unlikely, the statement is plausibly true.
UPSC 2022Polity · Constitutional Amendment
Q2. Consider the following statements: 1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India. 2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent. 3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Article 368, Part XX outlines the procedure for amending the Constitution, ensuring a balance between flexibility and stability.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Prior permission of the President is not required to introduce the bill for amending the Constitution in India. It is required in case of a money bill.
Statement 2 is correct: The 24th Constitutional Amendment made it obligatory for the President to give his assent, when a Constitution Amendment Bill was presented to him.
Statement 3 is correct: Article 368 of the Indian constitution requires that the constitution of India can be amended by both houses of parliament by a 2/3 majority(special majority). In case of disagreement between both houses, there is no provision to summon a joint session of parliament. Procedure for the Constitution Amendment (Article 368):
Borrowed from Constitution of South Africa Introduction of bills Amendment bill can be introduced only in either house of Parliament Who can introduce? Either by a minister or private member. President’s role in introduction of bill Prior permission of the President is not required to introduce the bill. Type of Majority needed Special Majority: Majority of the total membership of that house (50%) + by a majority of not less than 2/3 of the members of that house present and voting (2/3 of Present and Voting). Bill in houses Both the houses need to pass the bill with special majority Joint seating (Art. 108) There is no provision for a joint sitting in case of disagreement between the two Houses. Amending federal provisions Special majority + ratification by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority. Role of President in assenting the bill 24th constitutional amendment: It also amended Article 368 to provide expressly that Parliament has power to amend any provision of the Constitution. The amendment further made it obligatory for the President to give his assent, when a Constitution Amendment Bill was presented to him. Role of state legislature in introducing bill State legislature cannot introduce such a bill.
UPSC 2019Polity · Constitutional Amendment
Q3. Consider the following statements: 1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review. 2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: It was the 39th Constitutional Amendment (1975), passed during the Emergency, that placed elections for key offices like Prime Minister beyond judicial review. The 44th Amendment (1978) reversed several provisions of the 42nd Amendment, restoring civil liberties and the right to property.
Statement 2 is correct: The 99th Constitutional Amendment aimed to establish the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC). But in 2015, the Supreme Court struck it down, affirming the collegium system. Justice JS Kehar, who was part of the bench that struck down the NJAC, emphasized that NJAC undermined the judicial independence which is crucial for safeguarding citizens’ rights.
Additional insight:
Collegium System in India: The Collegium System is used for the appointment and transfer of judges in the Supreme Court and High Courts. It is not mentioned in the Constitution but evolved through Supreme Court rulings.
UPSC 2019Polity · Constitutional Amendment
Q4. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: 1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid. 2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Though the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 curtailed the power of HC in judicial review and debarred the HC from considering the constitutional validity of any central law. But the 43rd Amendment Act of 1978 restored the original position of the HC. Moreover now the HC is considered as the principal civil courts of original jurisdiction in each state and union territory. They can declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid in their jurisdiction.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution of India allows for amendments under Article 368 but the Supreme Court has the authority to review constitutional amendments, particularly to ensure that such amendments do not violate the basic structure of the Constitution. The Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) established the basic structure doctrine, where the Supreme Court ruled that Parliament could amend the Constitution but could not alter its basic structure.
Exam tip:
For S1, a general observation can tell that HC’s in India do declare central laws invalid, we have integrated judiciary! Saying they cannot declare a central law invalid would make them toothless. Phrase: "No High Court shall..." extreme blanket statement. Hence likely false. For S2, it is well known fact that "everything " in India is under judicial review. Remember this! This clearly invalidates S2.
UPSC 2013Polity · Constitutional Amendment
Q5. Consider the following statements: 1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only. 2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated by the introduction of a bill in either house of the Parliament. (not only in Lok Sabha).
Statement 2 is incorrect: If the bill seeks to amend the Federal provisions of the Constitution, then it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority and not all the states.
UPSC 2009Polity · Constitutional Amendment
Q6. Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments states that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the House of the People?
Explanation
Option (b) is correct: The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act limits the number of ministers in the Council of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, to a maximum of 15% of the total members of the Lok Sabha (House of the People). The limit was imposed to keep the size of the cabinet in check and reduce unnecessary bureaucratic expansion, ensuring that the government remains efficient and effective. Options (a), (c) and (d) are incorrect: 90th Amendment concerns the reservation of seats for Scheduled Tribes in the legislatures of Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Arunachal Pradesh The 92nd Amendment deals with the addition of languages to the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution. 93rd Amendment enables reservations for socially and educationally backward classes in admission to educational institutions including private educational institutions, whether aided or unaided by the State, other than the minority educational institutions
UPSC 2008Polity · Constitutional Amendment
Q7. Under which one of the following Constitution Amendment Acts, four languages were added to the list of languages under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, thereby raising their number to 22?
Explanation
The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the officially recognized languages of India. This schedule was expanded in 2003 through the Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act, which added four additional languages: Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali. This amendment increased the total number of languages in the Eighth Schedule from 18 to 22. The 93rd Constitutional Amendment Act enables reservations for socially and educationally backward classes in admission to educational institutions including private educational institutions, whether aided or unaided by the State, other than the minority educational institutions. The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act limits the number of ministers in the Council of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, to a maximum of 15% of the total members of the Lok Sabha (House of the People)(Similarly it applies to State CoM also.) 90th Constitutional Amendment Act provided for maintaining the erstwhile representation of the Scheduled Tribes in the Assam legislative assembly from the Bodoland Territorial Areas District (Article-332 (6))
UPSC 2007Polity · Constitutional Amendment
Q8. Which of the following Constitution Amendment Acts seeks that the size of the Councils of Ministers at the Centre and in a State must not exceed 15 per cent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha and the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State, respectively?
Explanation
According to the 91st Constitution Amendment Act,2003, the number of ministers, including the Prime Minister or Chief Minister, cannot exceed 15% of the total membership of the Lok Sabha at the Centre or the Legislative Assembly at the State level. It was formulated primarily to address concerns about the excessive size of the Council of Ministers and to strengthen anti-defection laws. The Act aimed to streamline the functioning of the Indian government and curb political opportunism.
Additional insight:
The 93rd Amendment Act of 2005 added Clause (5) to Article 15 of the Indian Constitution, allowing the government to make special provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes, Scheduled Castes, and Scheduled Tribes in education. This includes reservations in private educational institutions, both aided and unaided by the government, except for minority institutions. The Ninety-fifth Amendment of the Constitution of India, officially known as The Constitution (Ninety-fifth Amendment) Act, 2009, extended the period of reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and representation of the Anglo-Indians in the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies for another ten years, up to 26 January 2020. However, the Anglo-Indian representation was also extended, but it was later abolished by the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019. The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 was enacted to provide constitutional recognition and protection to cooperative societies in India
UPSC 2006Polity · Constitutional Amendment
Q9. What does the 104th Constitution Amendment Bill relate to?
Explanation
The 104th Constitution Amendment Bill deals specifically with the issue of reservation or quota for Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs) in private educational institutions. It was aimed to extend the reservations or affirmative action to private educational institutions so that SEBCs could access quality education in private institutions as well. Before this amendment, reservation policies applied primarily to government-run institutions, and private institutions were largely free to admit students on their own terms, without any mandatory quota for backward classes.
UPSC 2005Polity · Constitutional Amendment
Q10. The Constitution (98th Amendment) Bill is related to:
Explanation
The 98th Constitutional Amendment Bill was introduced in India to reform the judicial appointment process by establishing a National Judicial Commission (NJC). The NJC was proposed to replace the existing collegium system, which had been criticized for its lack of transparency and accountability in selecting judges. The Commission would have included the Chief Justice of India, senior judges, and members from the executive, ensuring a more inclusive and structured process for judicial appointments. However, the proposed amendment did not come into effect, as it was struck down by the Supreme Court, which upheld the collegium system in its 2015 judgment. Probably UPSC has mistakenly used word ‘Act instead of bill’.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
1
2024
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2
2022
(b) 2 and 3 only
3
2019
(b) 2 only
4
2019
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
5
2013
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
6
2009
(b) 91st
7
2008
(c) Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act
8
2007
(a) 91st
9
2006
(c) Providing quota to socially and educationally backward classes in private educational institutions.
10
2005
(b) the Constitution of the National Judicial Commission
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Constitutional Amendment?
This page covers 15 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Constitutional Amendment (Polity), asked between 2000 to 2024. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for Constitutional Amendment?
Questions on Constitutional Amendment (Polity) are available for 13 years, from 2000 to 2024. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.