This page lists 18 previous year UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination (General Studies Paper-I) questions on Polity in the UPSC 2003 Prelims. Choose an option to see the correct answer and the full explanation on the same page.
Showing 1–10 of 18 questions
UPSC 2003Polity · Historical Background
Q1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
List-I (Items in the Indian Constitution)
List-II (Country from which it was derived)
A. Directive Principles of State Policy
1. Australia
B. Fundamental Right
2. Canada
C. Concurrent List in Union-State Relations
3. Ireland
D. India as a Union of States with greater powers to the Union
4. United Kingdom
| 5. United States of America
Explanation
The Indian Constitution is a unique blend of influences from various countries, incorporating their best practices into its framework. Directive Principles of State Policy were inspired by Ireland. The Irish Constitution provided the model for including socio-economic rights in the form of guiding principles for state policy. Fundamental Rights were borrowed from the United States of America. The American Bill of Rights served as the inspiration for ensuring basic human rights in India. The Concurrent List in Union-State Relations was influenced by Australia, reflecting their federal structure. The concept of India as a Union of States with greater powers to the Union was derived from Canada, which has a strong federal system with residual powers vested in the central government. List-I (Items in the Indian Constitution) List-II (Country from which it was derived Parliamentary System of Government United Kingdom President as Supreme Commander of Armed Forces United States of America Procedure for Amendment of the Constitution South Africa Emergency Provisions (National Emergency) Germany (Weimar Constitution)
UPSC 2003Polity · Constitutional Amendment
Q2. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of Members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the States?
Explanation
Option (a) is incorrect: The 6th Amendment relates to change in the Union List and State List with respect to raising of taxes while the 22nd Amendment allows the formation of autonomous states within Assam.
Option (b) is incorrect: The 13th Amendment provided special protection under Article 371A for the newly created State of Nagaland and the 38th Amendment empowers the President with authority to declare certain ordinances beyond judicial review.
Option (c) is correct: The 7th Amendment provided for the reorganization of states, which included adjustments to parliamentary representation. The 31st Amendment increased the number of Lok Sabha seats from 525 to 545, directly addressing the representation from states.
Option (d) is incorrect: The 11th Amendment concerns the election of the Vice President by Electoral College consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament, instead of election by a Joint Sitting of Parliament while the 42nd Amendment is known as the "Mini-Constitution" and introduced comprehensive changes to various aspects of the Constitution, including the Preamble and Directive Principles.
UPSC 2003Polity · Emergency Provisions
Q3. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that ‘It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance’?
Explanation
Article 355 states that "It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution."
UPSC 2003Polity · President
Q4. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his assent to the ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes (in the year 2002)?
Explanation
Option (a) is incorrect: Article 121 prohibits parliamentary discussions on judges’ conduct except during removal motions.
Option (b) is incorrect: Article 122 prohibits courts from questioning parliamentary procedures and conduct of business within Parliament.
Option (c) is correct: Article 123 allows the President to issue ordinances when Parliament is not in session, giving them the same effect as laws. These ordinances are issued based on the Council of Ministers’ advice, as outlined in Article 74.
Option (d) is incorrect: Article 124 outlines the establishment, appointment, and tenure of Supreme Court judges.
UPSC 2003Polity · President
Q5. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President make a reference to the Supreme Court to seek the Court’s opinion on the Constitutional validity of the Election Commission’s decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly Elections (in the year 2002)?
Explanation
Article 143 allows the President to seek the Supreme Court’s advice on legal questions or public matters. The President can also refer disputes from treaties or agreements for the Court’s opinion.
Option (b) is correct: The President sought the Supreme Court’s opinion under Article 143 on deferring Gujarat Assembly Elections.
Option (a), (c) and (d) are incorrect:
Article 142 empowers the Supreme Court to pass any order necessary for doing complete justice in any case. Article 144 mandates that all authorities in India assist in implementing Supreme Court orders and decrees. Article 145 allows the Supreme Court to frame rules for regulating its practices and procedures.
UPSC 2003Polity · President
Q6. Consider the following statements: In the electoral college for Presidential Election in India, 1. The value of the vote of an elected Member of Legislative Assembly equals State Population × 100 = Number of Elected MLAs of the State 2. The value of the vote of an elected Member of Parliament equals to total value of the votes of all elected MLA’s divided by total number of elected MP’s 3. There were more than 5000 members in the latest elections. Which of these statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The formula: The value of the vote of an elected Member of Legislative Assembly equals = [{State Population / (Number of Elected MLAs of the state} X 1000]. Thus the equation should have 1000 at the place of multiplication not 100.
Statement 2 is correct: The statement is slightly incorrect because the value of vote of an elected member of the Parliament equals the total value of the votes of all elected MLAs divided by total number of elected MPs.
Statement 3 is incorrect: For the 2003 question the latest Presidential election was held in 2002 which had 4896 electors.
UPSC 2003Polity · Parliament
Q7. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter included in the Union List of Legislative Powers rests with:
Explanation
According to Article 138(1) of the Constitution of India, Parliament has the power to confer additional jurisdiction on the Supreme Court in matters included in the Union List. This means that if the Parliament deems it necessary, it can pass a law to grant the Supreme Court the authority to hear and decide on specific matters that fall within the jurisdiction of the union list. Also under article 138(2) the Supreme Court shall have such further jurisdiction and powers with respect to any matter as the Government of India and the Government of any State may confer by special agreement.
UPSC 2003Polity · Parliament
Q8. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Explanation
Statement (a) is incorrect: Under article 80(1) (a), The President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha from people who have special knowledge or practical experience in art, literature, science and social service. Before 2020 2 members were nominated from the Anglo-Indian community in Lok Sabha by the President. Statement (b) is incorrect: Before 2020, the President under article 331 nominated two members from the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha (and not Rajya Sabha) if the community was not adequately represented. This provision was abolished by the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019, which came into effect in January 2020. Statement (c) is correct: A nominated member of either Rajya Sabha or Lok Sabha has mostly the same rights and privileges as an elected member, including the right to be appointed as a Union minister. However, nominated members cannot vote in Presidential elections. Statement (d) is incorrect: Under article 55, only elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union Territories participate in the Presidential election.Therefore nominated members cannot vote in the Presidential election. However, both elected and nominated members can vote in Vice Presidential elections.
UPSC 2003Polity · Parliament
Q9. Consider the following statements: 1. The joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article 108 of the Constitution. 2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961. 3. The second joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament was held to pass the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill. Which of these statements is correct?
Explanation
Joint sitting is an extraordinary machinery provided by the constitution to resolve a deadlock between the two houses over the passage of a bill.
Statement 1 is correct: Article 108 of the Indian Constitution provides for a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament if after a bill is passed by one House and transmitted to the other House - The other House rejects this bill, or The Houses do not agree on the amendments made to the bill, or More than six months elapse with the bill being received by the other House without it being passed.
Statement 2 is correct: The First Joint sitting was held in May, 1961 in which Dowry Prohibition Bill 1960 was passed
Statement 3 is correct: The second joint sitting of the two Houses of the Indian Parliament was held to pass the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill. The Bill had been passed by the Lok Sabha but was rejected by the Rajya Sabha. As a result, a joint sitting was convened to resolve the deadlock, and the Bill was passed.
UPSC 2003Polity · Parliament
Q10. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliamentary separately by special majority?
Explanation
According to Article 368 of the Indian Constitution, an amendment to the Constitution can be initiated only by introducing a Bill in either House of Parliament. The Bill must be passed in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting (Special Majority). Once both Houses pass the Bill, it is presented to the President, who must give assent. Upon the President’s assent, the Constitution stands amended in accordance with the terms of the Bill.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
1
2003
(d) A-3, B-5, C-1, D-2
2
2003
(c) 7th and 31st
3
2003
(d) Article 355
4
2003
(c) Article 123
5
2003
(b) Article 143
6
2003
(b) Only 2
7
2003
(c) The Parliament
8
2003
(c) There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointed as a Union minister.
9
2003
(d) 1, 2 and 3
10
2003
(d) Constitution Amendment Bill
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Polity?
This page covers 18 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Polity in the UPSC 2003 Prelims, asked between 1996 to 2024. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for Polity?
Questions on Polity in the UPSC 2003 Prelims are available for 29 years, from 1996 to 2024. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.