UPSC 2025 Polity Questions with Answers

Explanation

Row I is not matched: The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) is a specialized economic intelligence and law enforcement agency under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance (not Ministry of Home Affairs). It enforces laws like the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) and the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA). While the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 is also enforced by the ED, it does not work under the Internal Security Division-I of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Row II is matched: The DRI is the premier anti-smuggling agency responsible for enforcing the Customs Act, 1962, and functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. Row III is incorrectly matched: The Directorate General of Analytics and Risk Management (DGARM) has been set up, w.e.f. 01-07-2018, to provide intelligence inputs and carry out big data analytics to assist the tax officers for better policy formulation and nabbing evaders. The DGARM functions under the Central Board of Indirect Tax and Customs (CBIC), mainly to use internal and external sources for detailed data mining to generate actionable inputs. The DGARM is an attached office of the CBIC which reports to Chairman, CBIC through Member (Investigation). This Directorate General functions for Customs, Central Excise and Goods and Services Tax. The DGARM works in close coordination with Directorate General of Systems and Data Management, Directorate General of Revenue Intelligence, Directorate General of Goods and Services Tax Intelligence, Directorate General of Audit and Directorate General of Valuation. The DGARM utilizes internal and external data sources for detailed data mining and analysis to generate outputs for focused and targeted action by field formations and investigation wings of CBIC. It in conjunction with DG Systems, organize, evaluate and interpret data for the purposes of effective, efficient and targeted policy formulation and revenue administration.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 243B Panchayats at the intermediate level may not be constituted in a State having a population not exceeding twenty lakhs. So, the states which have a population below 20 Lakh are given an option to not to have the intermediate level.At present, States of Arunachal Pradesh, Goa, Sikkim and Union Territories of Lakshadweep, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu have two-tier Panchayati Raj System.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 243F makes provisions for disqualifications from the membership of Panchayat. Under Article 243F, the minimum age prescribed to become a member of the Panchayat is 21 years.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 243I provides for the Constitution of a Finance Commission to review the financial position of the panchayats. Such a Finance Commission is constituted by the Governor.

Explanation

The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 provides for the establishment of a body of Lokpal for the Union. Statement 1 is incorrect: The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 shall apply to public servants in and outside India. Thus, the Lokpal has jurisdiction over all public servants, whether posted in India or abroad.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Section 3 of the Lokpal Act says that the Chairperson or a Member of Lokpal shall not be a member of Parliament or a member of the Legislature of any State or Union territory. It also provides that the Lokpal shall consist of a Chairperson, who is or has been a Chief Justice of India or is or has been a Judge of the Supreme Court or an eminent person.

Statement 3 is correct: As per Section 3 of the Lokpal Act, the Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age, on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.

Statement 4 is incorrect: As per Section 14 of the Lokpal Act, the jurisdiction of the Lokpal extends to any person who is or has been a Prime Minister. However, there are exceptions here. There are certain cases in which Lokpal shall not inquire into any matter involving the Prime Minister.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: While the President’s pardoning power is broad, it is not absolute. The Supreme Court has held that judicial review is permissible if the decision is arbitrary, mala fide, or based on irrelevant considerations (e.g., political favoritism). In the landmark case of Maru Ram v. Union of India (1980) it was established that courts can intervene if constitutional principles are violated.

Statement 2 is incorrect: In the Maru Ram v. Union of India case, the Supreme Court made it clear that the President’s power to grant pardons under Article 72 is an executive responsibility and must be carried out based on the advice of the Council of Ministers, as required by Article 74. The President does not have the authority to use this power independently.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 94 of the Indian constitution, the Speaker of the House continues in office until the first meeting of the newly constituted Lok Sabha after dissolution.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does not mandate the Speaker to resign from their political party. While parliamentary conventions encourage neutrality on part of the Speaker of the House, this is not a constitutional requirement.

Statement 3 is correct: Article 94 of the Indian Constitution addresses the process for removing the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. It states that the Speaker may be removed through a resolution supported by a majority of the current members of the House, provided that at least 14 days’ notice is given before moving the resolution.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Under the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law), the authority to decide on disqualification due to defection is the Speaker of the House of the People (Lok Sabha), not the President. The Speaker’s decision is final in cases of anti-defection.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The 52nd Amendment, enacted in 1985, added the Tenth Schedule to the Indian Constitution. This amendment introduced the term ‘Political Party’ into the Constitution for the first time.

Explanation

Article 123 of the Constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament. These ordinances have the same force and effect as an act of Parliament, but are in the nature of temporary laws.

Statement 1 is correct: An ordinance, issued under Article 123 of the Constitution when Parliament is not in session, has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament. Therefore, it can amend any existing Central Act, just like a regular law passed by Parliament.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Although an ordinance has the force of law, it is subject to constitutional limitations. As per Article 13(2), the State cannot make any law--including an ordinance--that abridges or takes away Fundamental Rights. Any such ordinance would be unconstitutional and liable to be struck down by the judiciary.

Statement 3 is correct: An ordinance can be given retrospective effect, similar to laws passed by the legislature. There is no constitutional bar on making an ordinance effective from a back date, as long as the ordinance explicitly provides for it.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Inter-State Council was established under Article 263 of the Constitution of India. This article empowers the President to create a council to inquire into and advise on disputes between states or between the Union and states, and to promote cooperative federalism. The Inter-State Council was constituted in 1990 by a Presidential order based on this constitutional provision.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The National Security Council (NSC) is a non-constitutional body formed in 1998 by an executive decision of the Government of India. It serves as the apex agency to advise the Prime Minister on matters related to national security and strategic interests but has no basis in the Constitution.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Zonal Councils were created under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, which is a statutory act passed by Parliament, not a constitutional provision. These councils facilitate cooperation and coordination among states grouped into zones.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Article 163 provides for a council of ministers with the chief minister at the head to aid and advise the governor in the exercise of his functions except the discretionary ones. If any question arises whether a matter falls within the governor’s discretion or not, the decision of the governor is final and the validity of anything done by him cannot be called in question on the ground that he ought or ought not to have acted in his discretion.

Statement 2 is incorrect: When a bill is sent to the governor after it is passed by state legislature, he can: (a) Give his assent to the bill, or (b) Withhold his assent to the bill, or (c) Return the bill (if it is not a money bill) for reconsideration of the state legislature. However, if the bill is passed again by the state legislature with or without amendments, the governor has to give his assent to the bill, or (d) Reserve the bill for the consideration of the president. The President cannot directly receive or reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature In one case such reservation is obligatory, that is, where the bill passed by the state legislature endangers the position of the state high court. In addition, the governor can also reserve the bill if it is of the following nature: (i) Ultra-vires, that is, against the provisions of the Constitution. (ii) Opposed to the Directive Principles of State Policy. (iii) Against the larger interest of the country. (iv) Of grave national importance. (v) Dealing with compulsory acquisition of property under Article the Constitution.

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct: The separation of the judiciary from the executive is mentioned under Article 50 of the Constitution, which is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy. It directs the State to ensure the independence of the judiciary from executive control in public services.

Pair 2 is correct: The duty to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture is included in the Fundamental Duties under Article 51A(f). This reflects the constitutional commitment to cultural preservation.

Pair 3 is correct: The prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories is a Fundamental Right under Article 24 in Part III of the Constitution. It safeguards children from exploitation in hazardous environments.