365 previous year UPSC Prelims Polity questions are on this page, from 1996 to 2025, across 30 exam years and 29 chapters. Parliament is the largest chapter, followed by Miscellaneous, Fundamental Rights and the Higher Judiciary. Filter by chapter to practise one topic, or by year to see how a single paper treated Polity. Every option opens with its correct answer and a full explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 91–100 of 365 questions
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UPSC 2020Polity · Parliament
Q91. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in
Explanation
Option (b) is correct: The Rajya Sabha enjoys equal powers with Lok Sabha in matters like - The impeachment of the President, Removal of the vice-president, Constitutional amendments, and Removal of the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
Option (a), (c) and (d) are incorrect:
Rajya Sabha enjoys exclusive powers in the matter of creating new All India Services. In the matter of removal of government, Rajya Sabha has unequal status with respect to Lok Sabha. The Council of Ministers is responsible only to Lok Sabha and not to the Rajya Sabha. Thus, a no-confidence motion cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha has less or no powers in the matters of finance like making cut motions, passing money bill, etc. vis-a-vis Lok Sabha.
UPSC 2020Polity · Parliament
Q92. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include "The Macro Economic Framework Statement". The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by:
Explanation
The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003 aims to ensure fiscal discipline in India by setting targets for government borrowing, fiscal deficits, and public debt. Its objective is to reduce the fiscal deficit and maintain macroeconomic stability. As per the act the Central Government is required to lay before both Houses of Parliament the following fiscal policy statements every financial year, alongside the annual financial statement and demands for grants:
Q93. Consider the following statements: 1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months. 2. The state cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data. 3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products. 4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the Aadhaar Act, 2016, metadata cannot be stored beyond six months, not three months.
Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court struck down Section 57 of the Aadhaar Act, which allowed private entities to use Aadhaar for authentication or to enter into contracts involving Aadhaar data. The Supreme Court ruling (2018) restricted Aadhaar data sharing with private entities, ensuring privacy and limiting government contracts with private corporations.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Aadhaar is not mandatory for purchasing insurance products as per IRDAI guidelines.
Statement 4 is correct: Aadhaar is required for availing benefits funded by the Consolidated Fund of India, as per Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act.
UPSC 2019Polity · Basic Concepts
Q94. In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?
Explanation
According to OECD the term social capital can be defined as "networks together with shared norms, values and understandings that facilitate co-operation within or among groups". It consists of trust, mutual understanding, shared values and behaviour that bind together the members of a community and make cooperative action possible. Such interaction enables people to build communities, to commit themselves to each other, and to knit the social fabric. The proportion of literates in the population and the size of population in the working age group can be the examples of human capital. The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines is the example of physical capital.
UPSC 2019Polity · Salient Features of the Constitution
Q95. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
Explanation
The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution governs the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes. Article 244(1) defines these areas as specified by the President. In the landmark Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1997) case, the Supreme Court ruled that transferring tribal land to private parties, including for mining, is null and void, reinforcing safeguards for tribal rights. The Governor, with advice from the Tribal Advisory Council (TAC), can make regulations for peace and good governance in these areas. These can include restrictions on land transfers, allotments, and money-lending activities involving scheduled tribes.
UPSC 2019Polity · Salient Features of the Constitution
Q96. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of:
Explanation
The Ninth Schedule of the Indian Constitution was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights. At this time, Jawaharlal Nehru was the Prime Minister of India. He remained in the office from the year 1947 to 1964. This schedule deals with the provisions as to validation of certain Acts and Regulations of the state legislatures primarily dealing with land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system and of the Parliament dealing with other matters.
UPSC 2019Polity · Preamble
Q97. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
Explanation
Liberty is generally understood not as the absence of restraint or mere freedom to do whatever one likes, but as the freedom to develop one’s full potential within the framework of laws and rights that ensure the same freedom for others. This idea aligns with the concept of positive liberty, which is the ability to act in ways that allow personal and collective growth, while also respecting the freedoms of others.
Exam tip:
Break down the options using two filters: Is it positive or negative in tone? Is it balanced or extreme?
Option A, Sounds reactive and negative — liberty as shield, not as freedom. Also narrow — only about political rulers.
Option B, Feels absolute, like no rules at all(negative tone). That’s not liberty — that’s anarchy. Similarly Option C, disguised as liberty but actually promoting lawlessness(negative tone).
Option D, Balanced + Empowering = Hence, Most appropriate
UPSC 2019Polity · Fundamental Rights
Q98. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?
Explanation
Article 21 of the Constitution of India guarantees the "right to life and personal liberty", which the Supreme Court has interpreted to include the right to marry a person of one’s choice. In several landmark judgments, the Court has emphasized that this right is part of an individual’s personal liberty, and any interference with it must meet strict scrutiny under the Constitution. In the famous Hadiya case(Shafin Jahan v. Asokan K.M.), the court held that the right to choose a partner is essential to a person’s meaningful existence and autonomy.
Additional insight:
Right to Life: Ensures the protection of life and dignity, not just mere existence. Right to Personal Liberty: Prevents arbitrary arrest and detention, ensuring freedom of movement and choices. Right to Privacy: Recognized as a fundamental right (Puttaswamy case, 2017). Right to a Clean Environment: Includes protection against pollution and ecological degradation. Right to Live with Dignity: Covers humane conditions, health, and shelter. Right to Die with Dignity: Includes passive euthanasia. Protection Against Arbitrary State Actions: Any deprivation must follow due legal procedure.
UPSC 2019Polity · Constitutional Amendment
Q99. Consider the following statements: 1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review. 2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: It was the 39th Constitutional Amendment (1975), passed during the Emergency, that placed elections for key offices like Prime Minister beyond judicial review. The 44th Amendment (1978) reversed several provisions of the 42nd Amendment, restoring civil liberties and the right to property.
Statement 2 is correct: The 99th Constitutional Amendment aimed to establish the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC). But in 2015, the Supreme Court struck it down, affirming the collegium system. Justice JS Kehar, who was part of the bench that struck down the NJAC, emphasized that NJAC undermined the judicial independence which is crucial for safeguarding citizens’ rights.
Additional insight:
Collegium System in India: The Collegium System is used for the appointment and transfer of judges in the Supreme Court and High Courts. It is not mentioned in the Constitution but evolved through Supreme Court rulings.
UPSC 2019Polity · Constitutional Amendment
Q100. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: 1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid. 2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Though the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 curtailed the power of HC in judicial review and debarred the HC from considering the constitutional validity of any central law. But the 43rd Amendment Act of 1978 restored the original position of the HC. Moreover now the HC is considered as the principal civil courts of original jurisdiction in each state and union territory. They can declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid in their jurisdiction.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution of India allows for amendments under Article 368 but the Supreme Court has the authority to review constitutional amendments, particularly to ensure that such amendments do not violate the basic structure of the Constitution. The Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) established the basic structure doctrine, where the Supreme Court ruled that Parliament could amend the Constitution but could not alter its basic structure.
Exam tip:
For S1, a general observation can tell that HC’s in India do declare central laws invalid, we have integrated judiciary! Saying they cannot declare a central law invalid would make them toothless. Phrase: "No High Court shall..." extreme blanket statement. Hence likely false. For S2, it is well known fact that "everything " in India is under judicial review. Remember this! This clearly invalidates S2.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
91
2020
(b) amending the Constitution
92
2020
(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003
93
2020
(b) 2 and 4 only
94
2019
(d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society
95
2019
(b) Fifth Schedule
96
2019
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
97
2019
(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
98
2019
(b) Article 21
99
2019
(b) 2 only
100
2019
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
What UPSC has tested in Polity
Parliament, Fundamental Rights, the Higher Judiciary and Local Government together account for the largest share of Polity questions in this set.
Recent papers test statements about institutions: the Governor, the President’s ordinance and pardoning powers, Lokpal, Scheduled Areas and the Speaker’s office.
Older papers lean on single-fact recall: which Article, which Amendment, which Schedule.
The 2025 paper’s Polity questions fall in Parliament, President, Governor, Constitutional Amendment, Schedules, Centre-State Relations, Local Government and non-constitutional bodies.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Polity?
This page covers 365 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Polity, asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
Which Polity chapters has UPSC asked about most?
In this set, Parliament has the most questions, followed by the Miscellaneous group, Fundamental Rights, the Higher Judiciary, Local Government, the Directive Principles and the constitutional bodies. Small chapters such as Citizenship and Judicial Review have only one question each.
How do I practise Polity PYQs chapter by chapter?
Use the Chapter filter on this page, or open a chapter link such as Preamble or Parliament. Each chapter page gives its own questions, answer key and the facts UPSC has tested, so you can finish one topic before moving to the next.
Does this page include the 2025 UPSC Prelims paper?
Yes. The 2025 paper’s Polity questions are included, and you can open them alone with the Year filter set to 2025. They cover Parliament, the President’s powers, the Governor, Schedules, Panchayats, Lokpal and Centre-State bodies.
Are cancelled or disputed UPSC questions included?
No. Questions UPSC cancelled, and questions where the available answer key is disputed, are left out so that every question here has a single correct answer with an explanation you can rely on.
