365 previous year UPSC Prelims Polity questions are on this page, from 1996 to 2025, across 30 exam years and 29 chapters. Parliament is the largest chapter, followed by Miscellaneous, Fundamental Rights and the Higher Judiciary. Filter by chapter to practise one topic, or by year to see how a single paper treated Polity. Every option opens with its correct answer and a full explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 101–110 of 365 questions
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UPSC 2019Polity · Parliament
Q101. Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’. 2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times. 3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: There is no bar on how many offices can be exempted from the purview of the law. In the past the Supreme Court also held that the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Amendment Act, 2006 exempting 55 offices occupied by members of Parliament from disqualification was constitutionally valid.
Statement 2 is correct: Parliament has also enacted the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959, which has been amended five times to expand the exempted list. Amended was made in the following years: 1960, 1977, 1993, 2006, 2013.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The expression ‘office of profit’ is mentioned in the Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) of Constitution but it has neither been ‘defined’ in the Indian Constitution nor in the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Exam tip:
For S3, The word "defines" is a strong and rigid claim. Think practically: The Constitution is not a dictionary. It doesn’t explicitly list out or define "Office of Profit". Hence likely false. Gives option A as correct..
UPSC 2019Polity · Parliament
Q102. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.? 1. Ad Hoc Committee set up by the Parliament. 2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committee 3. Finance Commission 4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission 5. NITI Aayog Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
In India, independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, and electricity play a crucial role in ensuring that these sectors function efficiently and fairly.
Statement 1 is correct: Ad Hoc Committee set up by Parliament:
Temporary committees formed for specific purposes, including reviewing regulators.
Statement 2 is correct: Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committee: Main body responsible for scrutinizing independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, and electricity.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Finance Commission: Primarily deals with financial devolution between the Union and States, not regulatory reviews.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission (FSLRC): Was a one-time commission (2011) to review financial sector laws, not independent regulators.
Statement 5 is incorrect: NITI Aayog: Works as a policy think tank, but does not formally review regulators.
Exam tip:
S5, NITI is policy advisory, not a regulatory reviewer. No enforcement or oversight mandate. Most Likely false, eliminates options C and D. Now For S3, Ask yourself:
Does the Finance Commission ever intervene in the operations of TRAI, IRDAI, SEBI, CERC etc.? Answer: No, be-cause it’s not even within its functional mandate. Think in terms of function-entity misalignment in these. and you will reach at option A as correct.
UPSC 2019Polity · Higher Judiciary: Supreme Court and High Courts
Q103. Consider the following statements: 1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. 2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India. 3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. 4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 was passed to regulate the procedure for the investigation and proof of the misbehaviour or incapacity of a judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court.
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, a removal motion signed by 100 members (Lok Sabha) or 50 members (Rajya Sabha) is to be given to the Speaker/ Chairman. The speaker has the discretion to accept or reject the motion. Statement is 2 incorrect: The Constitution of India does not define and gives details of the expression ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India which are the ground for the impeachment of the Judges.
Statement 3 is correct: The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India is governed by the Judges Enquiry Act (1968).
Statement 4 is correct: If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires that the motion be passed by a ‘special majority’ i.e. majority of the total membership of the House and majority of not less than two thirds members present and voting.
Additional insight:
After removal motion is admitted, then the Speaker/ Chairman is to constitute a three-member committee to investigate the charges. The committee should consist of the chief justice or a judge of the Supreme Court, a chief justice of a high court, and a distinguished jurist.
Exam tip:
"For S1, Trap: "cannot be rejected" --> Absolute language. Hence likely false. For S2, Trap: Constitution gives details Ask: "Is Constitution ever very detailed about such sub-jective terms?" No. Terms like ‘proved misbehaviour’ and ‘incapacity’ are undefined, left to interpretation. Hence likely false too."
UPSC 2019Polity · Higher Judiciary: Supreme Court and High Courts
Q104. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibition or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
Explanation
Article 142 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Enforcement of decrees and orders of the Supreme Court and orders as to discovery, etc. The SC Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it. Article 142 empowers the Supreme Court to make orders that may not be bound by existing laws enacted by Parliament, enabling the Court to act in ways that ensure complete justice.
UPSC 2019Polity · Governor
Q105. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year. 2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Article 176(1) states that, through the legislative powers of the Governor, he can address the state legislature at the commencement of the first session after each general election and the first session of each year.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 208 of the Indian Constitution empowers State Legislatures to create rules for regulating their procedures and business. The state legislature can formulate its own ad hoc rules or rely on the Speaker’s discretion for procedural clarity. Each state’s legislative assembly has its autonomy in procedural matters, and there is no binding provision mandating the use of Lok Sabha rules unless adopted by the state legislature itself.
Exam tip:
For S2, State Legislature subordinate to the Union Parliament in terms of procedure. Lok Sabha rules aren’t automatically binding on states -- states are federally autonomous in procedural functioning. This statement suggests an automatic fallback -- which is an over generalization hence likely false.
UPSC 2019Polity · Miscellaneous
Q106. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017? 1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave. 2. Enterprises with crèches must allow the mother a minimum six crèche visits daily. 3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017, provides for 26 weeks of paid maternity leave for women employees for the first two children. Of this, a maximum of 8 weeks can be availed before delivery, and the remaining after childbirth. For women with more than two children, the entitlement is reduced to 12 weeks (6 weeks pre-delivery and 6 weeks post-delivery).
Statement 2 is incorrect: Establishments with 50 or more employees must provide crèche facilities, but the law does not mandate six crèche visits per day, rather mothers are allowed to visit the crèche four times a day, including rest intervals.
Statement 3 is correct: The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017, specifies that women who already have two or more surviving children are entitled to only 12 weeks of paid maternity leave, compared to 26 weeks for those with fewer than two children.
UPSC 2019Polity · Miscellaneous
Q107. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: 1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. 2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. 3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. 4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: According to the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, there are 75 PVTGs officially notified in India, residing across 18 States and one Union Territory (Andaman & Nicobar Islands).
Statement 2 is correct: A declining or stagnant population is one of the key criteria for identifying a PVTG, along with dependence on subsistence-level economy and limited access to modern facilities. The criteria for identifying PVTGs include:
Pre-agricultural level of technology, Low level of literacy, Economic backwardness, A stagnant or declining population.
Statement 3 is incorrect: As of now, there are 75 officially notified PVTGs, not 95.
Statement 4 is correct: Both Irular (Tamil Nadu) and Konda Reddi (Andhra Pradesh) tribes are included in the official list of PVTGs.
UPSC 2018Polity · Preamble
Q108. Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?
Explanation
“If there are no laws, there is no liberty" is attributed to John Locke. Law and liberty are not opposed; rather, laws protect liberty.
Option (a) is incorrect: If there are more laws, there is less liberty: This implies that law restricts liberty, which is not always the case. Well-structured laws are meant to protect and preserve liberty by ensuring order and justice. For instance, the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005 empowers citizens by promoting transparency in governance, thereby strengthening democracy and individual freedom.
Option (b) is correct: Without laws, there would be chaos, and individual liberty would be at risk. Laws provide the framework that allows liberty to exist and be protected. They ensure that people can enjoy their freedoms without infringing on others’ rights. For instance, without laws regulating traffic, there would be chaos on the roads, leading to accidents and endangering lives.
Option (c) is incorrect: If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people: While it is important for laws to reflect the will of the people, this option is not as broadly applicable. Liberty can exist even when laws are made by representatives or through other legitimate processes.
Option (d) is incorrect: If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger: Frequent changes in law may cause instability, but it does not inherently endanger liberty. As long as changes are made transparently and for the benefit of society, liberty can be maintained.
UPSC 2018Polity · Fundamental Rights
Q109. Consider the following statements: 1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education. 2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines. 3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) lays down the minimum qualifications for teachers, not the State Councils of Teacher Education.
Statement 2 is correct: The Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) is conducted as per NCTE guidelines and is a mandatory requirement for teaching primary classes in government and private schools.
Statement 3 is incorrect: More than 90% of teacher education institutions are privately managed, and only a small percentage are directly run by State Governments.
UPSC 2018Polity · Fundamental Rights
Q110. Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India. 2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Ninth Schedule and Article 31-B of the Indian Constitution was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights. A law passed by the Parliament and inserted into the Ninth Schedule receives protection under Article 31-B (validation of certain Acts and Regulations) and is thus exempt from judicial review. However in IR Coelho vs State of Tamil Nadu, 2007, the SC ruled that all laws (including those in the Ninth Schedule) would be open to Judicial Review if they violated the basic structure of the constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The mandate of Ninth schedule is to prevent judicial scrutiny but according to the Kesavananda Bharati Case, 1973, any violation with the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution is open to challenge in court of law. Again in IR Coelho vs State of Tamil Nadu, 2007, the SC ruled that all laws (including those in the Ninth Schedule) after 24 April 1973 would be open to Judicial Review if they violated the basic structure of the constitution.
Exam tip:
For S2, it is well known fact that "everything " in India is under judicial review. Remember this! This clearly invalidates S2.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
101
2019
(a) 1 and 2 only
102
2019
(a) 1 and 2
103
2019
(c) 3 and 4 only
104
2019
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
105
2019
(a) 1 only
106
2019
(c) 3 only
107
2019
(c) 1, 2 and 4
108
2018
(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
109
2018
(b) 2 only
110
2018
(a) 1 only
What UPSC has tested in Polity
Parliament, Fundamental Rights, the Higher Judiciary and Local Government together account for the largest share of Polity questions in this set.
Recent papers test statements about institutions: the Governor, the President’s ordinance and pardoning powers, Lokpal, Scheduled Areas and the Speaker’s office.
Older papers lean on single-fact recall: which Article, which Amendment, which Schedule.
The 2025 paper’s Polity questions fall in Parliament, President, Governor, Constitutional Amendment, Schedules, Centre-State Relations, Local Government and non-constitutional bodies.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Polity?
This page covers 365 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Polity, asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
Which Polity chapters has UPSC asked about most?
In this set, Parliament has the most questions, followed by the Miscellaneous group, Fundamental Rights, the Higher Judiciary, Local Government, the Directive Principles and the constitutional bodies. Small chapters such as Citizenship and Judicial Review have only one question each.
How do I practise Polity PYQs chapter by chapter?
Use the Chapter filter on this page, or open a chapter link such as Preamble or Parliament. Each chapter page gives its own questions, answer key and the facts UPSC has tested, so you can finish one topic before moving to the next.
Does this page include the 2025 UPSC Prelims paper?
Yes. The 2025 paper’s Polity questions are included, and you can open them alone with the Year filter set to 2025. They cover Parliament, the President’s powers, the Governor, Schedules, Panchayats, Lokpal and Centre-State bodies.
Are cancelled or disputed UPSC questions included?
No. Questions UPSC cancelled, and questions where the available answer key is disputed, are left out so that every question here has a single correct answer with an explanation you can rely on.
