This page lists 11 previous year UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination (General Studies Paper-I) questions on Polity in the UPSC 2000 Prelims. Choose an option to see the correct answer and the full explanation on the same page.
Showing 1–10 of 11 questions
UPSC 2000Polity · Constitutional Amendment
Q1. The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992 refers to the:
Explanation
The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act of 1992, commonly referred to as the Panchayati Raj Act, was a landmark legislation aimed at empowering local self-governance in India, especially at the grassroots level. Institutions were created to function at three levels: village, intermediate (block), and district levels, with the goal of decentralizing power and fostering local self-governance. It sought to ensure effective economic and social development through empowered local bodies. The Act aimed to empower rural areas by providing constitutional status to Panchayats, enhancing their role in local governance, economic development, and social justice.
UPSC 2000Polity · Parliament
Q2. The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part India for implementing international treaties:
Explanation
The powers and functions of the Parliament are mentioned in Chapter II of Part V of the Constitution. Under this, the Parliament is empowered to make laws on all matters listed in the Union list and Concurrent list of the Constitution.
Option (d) is correct: According to article 253, it can also formulate laws on any matter pertaining to the State list if it is deemed necessary for the implementation of International Treaties or Agreements concluded with foreign nations. This provision ensures that India can fulfill its international obligations effectively. Hence, no consent from the states is required.
UPSC 2000Polity · Parliament
Q3. Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct?
Explanation
Statement (a) is incorrect: A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha on the prior recommendation of the President, as per Article 109 of the Indian Constitution. It cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha. Statement (b) is correct: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a bill is a Money Bill or not. This decision is final and cannot be questioned in any court. However, in Rojer Mathew v South Indian Bank Ltd Case, 2019 Supreme court said that the speaker’s decision was not beyond judicial review though the scope was extremely restricted. Statement (c) is correct: After the Lok Sabha passes the Money Bill, it is sent to the Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha has 14 days to either accept, reject, or recommend changes in the bill to the Lok Sabha. The Lok Sabha can either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha. Statement (d) is correct: Once the Money Bill has been passed by the Lok Sabha (and the Rajya Sabha, if applicable), it is sent to the President for approval. The President may either give or withhold his assent to a Money Bill. The President cannot return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration.
UPSC 2000Polity · Parliament
Q4. The Speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member speak. This phenomenon is known as:
Explanation
Option (d) is correct: The speaker of the Lok sabha can ask a member of the house to stop speaking and let another member speak. It is known as yielding the floor. Yielding the floor allows the smooth and orderly conduct of debate in the House. The Speaker may ask a member to stop speaking if they have exceeded their time or if another member is to speak on the matter at hand. Options (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect:
Decorum refers to the appropriate behavior and conduct expected in the House. Crossing the floor is a term used when a member switches allegiance from one party to another, particularly in the context of voting or support. Interpellation is a formal procedure where a member of the House asks a question to the government, which requires a written or oral response. The term "interpellation" is not formally used in Indian parliamentary practice.
UPSC 2000Polity · State Legislature
Q5. The state which has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha is:
Explanation
The state with the largest number of seats reserved for Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the Lok Sabha is Madhya Pradesh. Madhya Pradesh has a significant tribal population, including communities like Gonds and Bhils, and the reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha is proportionate to the tribal population in the state. The reserved seats ensure representation of Scheduled Tribes in Parliament to address their issues and protect their rights.
UPSC 2000Polity · Centre-State Relations
Q6. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past? (2019)
Explanation
1st ARC Recommendation (1966): The first ARC recommended the appointment of persons having long experience in public life and administration and non-partisan attitude as governors. Rajamannar Committee (1969): The Rajamannar Committee recommended the provision that the state ministry holds office during the pleasure of the governor should be omitted. Sarkaria Commission (1983): The "Sarkaria Commission" recommended that the Governor should be a distinguished outsider without intense political links, that he should not have recently participated in politics, and that he should not be a member of the ruling party. National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000): The committee recommended that the president should appoint the governor of a state only after consultation with the chief minister of that state.
UPSC 2000Polity · Local Government: Panchayats and Municipalities
Q7. A college student desires to get elected to the Municipal Council of his city. The validity of his nomination would depend on the important condition, among others, that:
Explanation
Name figures in the voters’ list is a crucial condition. According to the Constitution and election laws, a candidate must be registered in the voters’ list of the respective local body area to be eligible for nomination. Options (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect:
He obtains permission from the principal of his college:
This is not a requirement under the law for contesting elections to a Municipal Council. The student does not need permission from his college principal unless there is an institutional policy specifically for that purpose. He is a member of a political party: While candidates may contest elections as members of political parties, membership is not a mandatory requirement. Independent candidates can also run for election. He files a declaration owing allegiance to the Constitution of India: Although a declaration of allegiance to the Constitution is important for various public offices, it is not typically a formal requirement for Municipal Council elections.
UPSC 2000Polity · Local Government: Panchayats and Municipalities
Q8. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Local Bodies)
List-II (States as in 1999)
A. Zila Parishads at the sub-divisional level
1. Andhra Pradesh
B. Mandal Praja Parishad
2. Assam
C. Tribal Councils
3. Mizoram
D. Absence of Village Panchayats
4. Meghalaya
Explanation
Option (a) is correct:
List-I (Local Bodies) List-II (States) A. Zila Parishads at the sub-divisional level
2. Assam B. Mandal Praja Parishad 1. Andhra Pradesh C. Tribal Councils 4. Meghalaya D. Absence of Village Panchayats 3. Mizoram Zila Parishads at the sub-divisional level: In the year 1999, Zila Parishads in Assam were associated with the sub-divisional level Mandal Praja Parishad: In Andhra Pradesh, Mandal Praja Parishads are the intermediate-level bodies. Tribal Councils: Meghalaya has Tribal Councils, which are autonomous bodies governing tribal areas. Absence of Village Panchayats: Mizoram does not have Village Panchayats, as seen in other states, but operates through Autonomous District Councils and other related forums for governance.
UPSC 2000Polity · Constitutional Bodies
Q9. Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India: (i) He is appointed by the President of India (ii) He must have the same qualifications as are required for a judge of the Supreme Court (iii) He must be a member of either House of Parliament (iv) He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament Which of these statements are correct?
Explanation
The Attorney General of India holds the highest legal office in the country, providing advice to the government on legal matters.
Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 76(1) of the Indian Constitution, the President appoints the Attorney General. The appointment is based on the President’s discretion.
Statement 2 is correct: As per Article 76(1), the qualifications for the Attorney General match those of a Supreme Court judge. This includes being an Indian citizen and having served as a High Court judge for at least five years, or an advocate in a High Court for at least ten years, or being an eminent jurist.
Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no constitutional requirement for the Attorney General to be a member of either House of Parliament. Unlike ministers, the Attorney General does not need parliamentary membership to hold the office.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The Attorney General serves at the pleasure of the President and can be dismissed at any time by the President. The process of impeachment, which applies to the President and judges, is not applicable to the Attorney General.
UPSC 2000Polity · Constitutional Bodies
Q10. The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to:
Explanation
The Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution. Its key role is to recommend how financial resources should be distributed between the Central Government and the State Governments. The Commission assesses several factors, including:
The financial conditions of the Centre and States Revenue needs and expenditure patterns The fiscal capacity of different states Based on this evaluation, it recommends the allocation of tax revenues, the distribution of revenue between the Centre and the States, as well as grants-in-aid and other financial resources. This helps ensure a balanced and equitable distribution of funds, promoting both fiscal autonomy and development across various states.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
1
2000
(c) laying the foundation for strong and vibrant Panchayati Raj institutions in the country.
2
2000
(d) without the consent of any State.
3
2000
(a) A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament
4
2000
(d) yielding the floor
5
2000
(d) Madhya Pradesh
6
2000
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
7
2000
(c) his name figures in the voters’ list
8
2000
(a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
9
2000
(a) 1 and 2
10
2000
(a) distribution of revenue between the Centre and the States
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Polity?
This page covers 11 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Polity in the UPSC 2000 Prelims, asked between 1996 to 2024. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for Polity?
Questions on Polity in the UPSC 2000 Prelims are available for 29 years, from 1996 to 2024. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.