UPSC 2001 Polity Questions with Answers

Explanation

A is matched with 5: The Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991) conferred the status of National Capital Territory (NCT) to Delhi, and provided for a legislative assembly for Delhi, with limited powers. B is matched with 1: The Constitution (Seventy-fifth Amendment) Act, 1994) established state-level Rent Tribunals, which have exclusive jurisdiction over rent-related matters, excluding the jurisdiction of all courts except the Supreme Court under Article 136. C is matched with 4: The Constitution (Eightieth Amendment) Act, 2000) provided for accepting the recommendations of the Tenth Finance Commission. D is matched with 2: The Constitution (Eighty-third Amendment) Act, 2000) clarified that there are no reservations for Scheduled Castes (SC) in Panchayats or legislative bodies in Arunachal Pradesh, and there are no provisions for SC reservations in government services in the state.

Explanation

Option (a) is correct: Indian Parliament exercises control over the administration primarily through Parliamentary Committees, which scrutinize the functioning of the executive and ensure accountability. The Parliament has Standing committees and Ad hoc committees that scrutinize bills, review the performance of Ministries, conduct enquiry and make recommendations.

Option (b) is incorrect: Consultative Committees, attached to various ministries, comprise MPs from both Houses and serve an advisory role by discussing policies and providing inputs. However, they lack binding powers or direct parliamentary oversight.

Option (c) is incorrect: Periodic reports sent by administrators are internal to the executive and do not involve direct parliamentary oversight. They are not a tool for Parliament to control administration.

Option (d) is incorrect: Writs play a critical role in maintaining accountability, they fall under the purview of the judiciary, not the legislature. Therefore, writs are not a mechanism for Parliament to exercise control over the administration.

Explanation

Under article 143 of the Indian Constitution, the President can seek the Supreme Court’s opinion on public importance matters. However, this advice is provided only if the President asks for it; the Supreme Court does not offer advice on its own initiative. This process is known as the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 143.

Explanation

Article 214-231 deals with the provisions of High Courts in India. Article 214 provides for a HC in each state while article 231 enables a HC to be shared with multiple states.

Statement 1 is incorrect: After the establishment of the Andhra Pradesh High Court in 2019, there were 25 High Courts in India.

Statement 2 is correct: Three high courts (Guwahati, Bombay and Punjab & Haryana High Courts) have jurisdiction over more than one state.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Delhi is the only UT having its own HC.

Statement 4 is correct: Judges of the High Court hold office till the age of 62. However the judges of supreme court hold office till the age of 65. Note: In this question though 2 statements are correct, but "d" is the most appropriate option.

Explanation

Local bodies are directly responsible for addressing citizens’ grievances related to municipal services, basic amenities, etc. However, the State Government can intervene in cases of inefficiency or corruption.

Explanation

The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India plays a crucial role in auditing and reporting on the financial transactions of the Indian government. However, some functions fall outside the purview of the CAG’s responsibilities. Statement (a) is correct: The CAG audits and reports on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, which includes government expenses related to various ministries and departments. Statement (b) is correct: The CAG is responsible for auditing and reporting on all expenditures from the Contingency Funds and Public Accounts. These funds are used for emergency and specific purposes, respectively. Statement (c) is correct: The CAG also audits and reports on trading, manufacturing, and profit and loss accounts of government-owned enterprises and other related entities. Statement (d) is incorrect: The duty of controlling the receipt and disbursement of public money and ensuring public revenue is deposited into the exchequer is managed by other government entities, such as the Ministry of Finance and the Reserve Bank of India.

Explanation

Option (c) is correct: Article 350-A of the Indian Constitution directs that every state should endeavor to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education. Options (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect:

Article 349 of the Indian Constitution deals with laws related to language. For 15 years after the Constitution’s commencement, any bill or amendment related to language must receive the President’s prior approval, which is given after considering recommendations from the Commission and the report of the Committee constituted under Article 344. Article 350 of the Indian Constitution ensures that individuals can submit grievances to any authority in the Union or State in a language they’re comfortable with. This provision promotes inclusivity and accessibility, recognizing India’s linguistic diversity and ensuring that language doesn’t become a barrier in seeking justice or redressal Article 351 directs the promotion of the Hindi language and aims to make it a unifying language for India by enriching its vocabulary and usage. It does not deal with the issue of primary education in the mother tongue.

Explanation

The Fourth Schedule of the Indian Constitution specifies the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha, detailing the representation of each state and union territory in the Council of States. Options (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect:

The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the scheme of distribution of powers between the Union and the States. It is divided into three lists: the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List. recognized languages. The Fifth and sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the provision regarding the administration of tribal areas

Explanation

A new state is created by Parliament under Article 2 or Article 3. Article 4 specifies that creating a state does not require a constitutional amendment. However, according to article 1 the First Schedule, listing states and their boundaries, must be amended while a new state of the Union to be created.

Explanation

A is matched with 1: Article 54 provides for the election of the President of India. B is matched with 2: Article 75 has provision for the appointment of the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers. C is matched with 3: Article 155 corresponds to the appointment of the Governor of a State. D is matched with 4: Article 164 provides for the appointment of the Chief Minister and Council of Ministers of a State. Article 170 gives the composition of the Legislative Assembly.