365 previous year UPSC Prelims Polity questions are on this page, from 1996 to 2025, across 30 exam years and 29 chapters. Parliament is the largest chapter, followed by Miscellaneous, Fundamental Rights and the Higher Judiciary. Filter by chapter to practise one topic, or by year to see how a single paper treated Polity. Every option opens with its correct answer and a full explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 51–60 of 365 questions
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UPSC 2022Polity · Constitutional Amendment
Q51. Consider the following statements: 1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India. 2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent. 3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Article 368, Part XX outlines the procedure for amending the Constitution, ensuring a balance between flexibility and stability.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Prior permission of the President is not required to introduce the bill for amending the Constitution in India. It is required in case of a money bill.
Statement 2 is correct: The 24th Constitutional Amendment made it obligatory for the President to give his assent, when a Constitution Amendment Bill was presented to him.
Statement 3 is correct: Article 368 of the Indian constitution requires that the constitution of India can be amended by both houses of parliament by a 2/3 majority(special majority). In case of disagreement between both houses, there is no provision to summon a joint session of parliament. Procedure for the Constitution Amendment (Article 368):
Borrowed from Constitution of South Africa Introduction of bills Amendment bill can be introduced only in either house of Parliament Who can introduce? Either by a minister or private member. President’s role in introduction of bill Prior permission of the President is not required to introduce the bill. Type of Majority needed Special Majority: Majority of the total membership of that house (50%) + by a majority of not less than 2/3 of the members of that house present and voting (2/3 of Present and Voting). Bill in houses Both the houses need to pass the bill with special majority Joint seating (Art. 108) There is no provision for a joint sitting in case of disagreement between the two Houses. Amending federal provisions Special majority + ratification by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority. Role of President in assenting the bill 24th constitutional amendment: It also amended Article 368 to provide expressly that Parliament has power to amend any provision of the Constitution. The amendment further made it obligatory for the President to give his assent, when a Constitution Amendment Bill was presented to him. Role of state legislature in introducing bill State legislature cannot introduce such a bill.
UPSC 2022Polity · Parliament
Q52. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: 1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix. 2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. 3. The Deputy Speaker has the same powers as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings. 4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The election date of the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha is not fixed in the Constitution. However, according to Rule 8 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, The Speaker decides the date of election of the Deputy Speaker. The election usually happens after the Speaker’s election, but there is no constitutional or statutory time limit for it.
Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no such mandatory provision that the election of a candidate, as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. It is only by convention that the position of Deputy Speaker is offered to the opposition party in India.
Statement 3 is correct: In case of the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker presides over the sessions of the Lok Sabha and conducts the business in the house, during such time he/she enjoys the same power as the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The appointment of the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is not initiated by the Speaker. Instead, a member of the Lok Sabha moves the motion for the election, which is then put to vote in the House. While the ruling party historically held this position, in recent decades, a convention has developed of electing a member from the opposition. There is no rule or convention requiring the Prime Minister to second the motion, and any member of the House may do so.
Exam tip:
For S2, Red Flag: "Mandatory provision". For S4, aligns with Function-person/organisation/ministry match trap as its easy to manipulate to make it false.
UPSC 2022Polity · Parliament
Q53. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? 1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency. 2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers. 3. To impeach the President of India Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its issue. If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the emergency continues for six months, and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months.
Statement 2 is correct: A No-Confidence Motion can only be initiated and passed in the Lok Sabha (House of the People). The Rajya Sabha (Upper House) cannot move or pass a No-Confidence Motion against the government.
Statement 3 is incorrect: As per Article 61, when a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. The impeachment resolution needs to be passed by not less than a majority of two-thirds of the total membership in each house.
UPSC 2022Polity · Parliament
Q54. Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four rank viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister. 2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The constitution mentions the word ‘council of ministers’, however it doesn’t classify ministers into 4 categories. Generally, the Prime Minister and other Ministers are collectively known as the Council of Ministers.
Statement 2 is correct: As per 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, the total number of Central Council of Ministers/State Council of Ministers including Prime Minister/ Chief Minister should not be more than 15% of total strength of Lok Sabha. It aimed at curbing the growing size of Cabinets at both the Union and State levels, which had often led to inefficient governance, excessive expenditure, and political instability. The goal was to promote good governance, encourage coalition politics, and reduce the influence of "buying loyalty" by offering ministerial positions.
Exam tip:
For S1, Trap Alert: "The Constitution classifies..." UPSC loves to trap you with "Constitution does this" when in reality it’s convention, rule, or practice. Hence likely false, eliminates options A and C.
UPSC 2022Polity · Higher Judiciary: Supreme Court and High Courts
Q55. Consider the following statements: 1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed. 2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Court to punish for contempt of themselves. 3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt. 4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court. Which of the above statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Pursuant to the recommendations made by the H N Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed to bring transparency and more clarity in the concept of contempt of court.
Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court and the High Courts of India have been empowered with the power to penalise for Contempt of Court under Articles 129 and 215 respectively of the Constitution of India.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not define Civil Contempt and/or Criminal Contempt. However, the expression has been defined by the Contempt of Court Act of 1971.
Statement 4 is correct: Article 142 (2) of the Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to make any order necessary for securing the attendance of any person, the discovery or production of any documents, or the investigation or punishment of any contempt of itself, subject to the provisions of any law made in this behalf by Parliament. The Parliament passed the Contempt of Court Act of 1971 pursuant to this.
Additional insight:
Types of Contempt:
Civil Contempt: Willful disobedience of a judgment, order, writ, or breach of an undertaking given to a court. Criminal Contempt: Involves acts or publications that:
Scandalize or lower the authority of the court.
Prejudice or interfere with judicial proceedings.
Obstruct the administration of justice in any manner.
UPSC 2022Polity · Higher Judiciary: Supreme Court and High Courts
Q56. With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. 2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The term "advocate" under the Advocates Act, 1961 refers to a person who has been enrolled as an advocate in the state Bar Council and is authorized to practice law in courts. Corporate lawyers and patent attorneys, however, are not excluded from recognition as advocates. Corporate lawyers often practice in corporate law firms, while patent attorneys handle intellectual property law.
Statement 2 is correct: The Bar Council of India is responsible for overseeing legal education, setting standards for law colleges, and recognizing institutions that offer law degrees. This power extends to setting norms and conditions for legal education to meet the standards required to practice law in India.
Exam tip:
For S1, Spot the trap: It plays on the term "recognised as advocates", trying to split legal professionals into arbitrary buckets. The nature of work or job title (e.g., government counsel, corporate lawyer, patent attorney) is not what determines "advocate" status -- what matters is Bar enrollment. Hence likely false.
UPSC 2022Polity · Anti-Defection Law
Q57. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements: 1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House. 2. The law does not provide any timeframe within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House. This means that he may join any political party within six months of taking his seat in the House.
Statement 2 is correct: The law does not specify any time period for the Presiding Officer to decide on a disqualification plea under the Tenth Schedule.
UPSC 2022Polity · Constitutional Bodies
Q58. Consider the following statements: 1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. 2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Attorney General has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he is a member, but without a right to vote. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a Member of Parliament. While Solicitor General of India and Additional Solicitor General of India have no such rights or privilege.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution and also, the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the president and conventionally, he resigns when CoM resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice.
Exam tip:
For S1, Watch for "only" trap, and why tag SG (non constitutional) along and on same footing as AG(constitutional)? Hence likely false. For S2, Resignation with government change Could be a political convention, not a legal mandate. Hence likely false.
UPSC 2021Polity · Basic Concepts
Q59. Which one of the following best defines the term ‘State?
Explanation
The State refers to a political institution that represents a sovereign people organised under one independent government within a definite territory and subject to no outside control.
Additional insight:
Under the Montevideo Convention on the Rights and Duties of States 1933, The term ’State’ is best defined using the four essential elements of statehood, as recognized in political science and international law. Population: A community of persons. Territory: A defined geographical area. Government: An organized political authority. Sovereignty: Independence from external control.
UPSC 2021Polity · Basic Concepts
Q60. Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?
Explanation
The doctrine of Separation of Powers entails the division of the legislative, executive, and judicial functions of government among different organs. This demarcation prevents the concentration of excessive power by any branch of the Government. It thus helps to safeguard the liberty and rights of the people in a democracy. Article 50 of the Directive Principles of State Policy mentions separation of judiciary from the executive.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
51
2022
(b) 2 and 3 only
52
2022
(a) 1 and 3 only
53
2022
(b) 2 only
54
2022
(b) 2 only
55
2022
(b) 1, 2 and 4
56
2022
(b) 2 only
57
2022
(b) 2 only
58
2022
(d) Neither1 nor 2
59
2021
(a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organised government
60
2021
(d) Separation of powers
What UPSC has tested in Polity
Parliament, Fundamental Rights, the Higher Judiciary and Local Government together account for the largest share of Polity questions in this set.
Recent papers test statements about institutions: the Governor, the President’s ordinance and pardoning powers, Lokpal, Scheduled Areas and the Speaker’s office.
Older papers lean on single-fact recall: which Article, which Amendment, which Schedule.
The 2025 paper’s Polity questions fall in Parliament, President, Governor, Constitutional Amendment, Schedules, Centre-State Relations, Local Government and non-constitutional bodies.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Polity?
This page covers 365 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Polity, asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
Which Polity chapters has UPSC asked about most?
In this set, Parliament has the most questions, followed by the Miscellaneous group, Fundamental Rights, the Higher Judiciary, Local Government, the Directive Principles and the constitutional bodies. Small chapters such as Citizenship and Judicial Review have only one question each.
How do I practise Polity PYQs chapter by chapter?
Use the Chapter filter on this page, or open a chapter link such as Preamble or Parliament. Each chapter page gives its own questions, answer key and the facts UPSC has tested, so you can finish one topic before moving to the next.
Does this page include the 2025 UPSC Prelims paper?
Yes. The 2025 paper’s Polity questions are included, and you can open them alone with the Year filter set to 2025. They cover Parliament, the President’s powers, the Governor, Schedules, Panchayats, Lokpal and Centre-State bodies.
Are cancelled or disputed UPSC questions included?
No. Questions UPSC cancelled, and questions where the available answer key is disputed, are left out so that every question here has a single correct answer with an explanation you can rely on.
