365 previous year UPSC Prelims Polity questions are on this page, from 1996 to 2025, across 30 exam years and 29 chapters. Parliament is the largest chapter, followed by Miscellaneous, Fundamental Rights and the Higher Judiciary. Filter by chapter to practise one topic, or by year to see how a single paper treated Polity. Every option opens with its correct answer and a full explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 41–50 of 365 questions
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UPSC 2023Polity · Miscellaneous
Q41. With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: 1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. 2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. 3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the States/Union Territories. The Ministry of Home Affairs provides policy guidance, but the implementation is state-specific.
Statement 2 is correct: The role of Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary Force to the police in the maintenance of internal security situations, help the community in any kind of emergency such as an air raid, fire, cyclone, earthquake, epidemic etc., help in the maintenance of essential services, promote communal harmony and assist the administration in protecting weaker sections, participate in socio- economic and welfare activities and perform Civil Defence duties.
Statement 3 is correct: Fifteen Border Wing Home Guards (BWHG) Battalions (Bns) have been raised in the border States viz. Punjab (6 Bns.), Rajasthan (4 Bns.), Gujarat (2 Bns.) and one each Battalion for Meghalaya, Tripura and West Bengal to serve as an auxiliary to Border Security Force for preventing infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, guarding of Vital Areas/ Vital Points and lines of communication in the vulnerable area at the time of external aggression.
UPSC 2023Polity · Miscellaneous
Q42. With reference to India, consider the following pairs: 1. Unauthorised wearing of the official police or Military uniforms: The Official Secrets Act, 1923 2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties: The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others: The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Explanation
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Section 6 of the Official Secrets Act,1923, deals with the unauthorised use of uniforms, falsification of reports, forgery, personation, and false documents.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Section 7 of the Official Secrets Act,1923 deals with the infraction of interfering with ‘Officers of the Police’ or ‘Members of the Armed Forces of the Union’ engaged in the discharge of their duties.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 outlines that whoever uses a firearm in a ‘rash or negligent manner’ or in ‘celebratory gunfire’ so as to endanger human life or personal safety of others shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine which may extend to rupees one lakh, or with both.
UPSC 2023Polity · Miscellaneous
Q43. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002: Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm × 400 mm. Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
The Indian National Flag represents the hopes and aspirations of more than 1 billion people, and the display of the National flag is governed by the provisions of the Emblems and Names(Prevention of Improper Use Act, 1950) and the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971. Additionally, the Flag Code of India, 2002, brings together all such laws and practices in the form of guidance to all. Statement-I is incorrect: According to the Flag Code of India, the standard sizes of the Indian National Flag are:
Flag Size No. Dimensions (mm)
1. 6300° 4200
2. 3600° 2400
3. 2700° 1800
4. 1800° 1200
5. 1350° 900
6. 900° 600
7. 450° 300
8. 225° 150
9. 150° 100 Statement-II is correct: According to the Flag Code of India, the National Flag shall be rectangular in shape. The Flag can be of any size, but the ratio of the length to the height (width) of the National Flag should be 3:2.
Additional insight:
An appropriate size should be chosen for display:
Aircraft on VVIP Flight: 450 x 300 mm.
Motor Cars: 225 x 150 mm Table Flag: 150 x 100 mm
UPSC 2023Polity · Miscellaneous
Q44. Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day: Statement-I: Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. Statement-II: On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Statement-I is correct: The Constitution Day, also known as ‘Samvidhan Divas’, is celebrated in our country on 26th November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India. The day was officially declared as Constitution Day in 2015 to promote awareness of constitutional values and principles among citizens. Statement-II is not correct: The Drafting Committee was set up under the Chairmanship of Dr B.R. Ambedkar by the Constituent Assembly on 29 August 1947 to prepare a Draft Constitution for India.
Additional insight:
On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India. The Constitution came into effect on 26th January 1950, marking its commencement. The adopted Constitution consisted of a Preamble, 395 Articles, and 8 Schedules.
Exam tip:
For S2, drafting start on that day! Wow! Could there be any more extreme phrase than this. Common sense can tell this is false.
UPSC 2023Polity · Miscellaneous
Q45. Consider the following statements: 1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances. 2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention. 3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2002, the confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence. How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 355 of the Indian Constitution, it is the duty of the Union, i.e. the Central Government, to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 22(3)(b) of the Indian Constitution explicitly states that the rights under Article 22(1) and 22(2)--which include the right to legal counsel--do not apply to individuals detained under preventive detention laws.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Section 32 of Prevention of Terrorism Act 2002, allows confessions made before a police officer (not below the rank of Superintendent of Police) to be admissible as evidence in court, provided they are recorded in accordance with prescribed safeguards. This provision departs from general criminal law, where confessions before police are inadmissible under Sections 25 and 26 of the Indian Evidence Act.
Additional insight:
Article 22 protects individuals who are arrested or detained, outlining two types of detention:
Punitive detention: Detention after a person is tried and convicted by a court for an offence. Preventive detention: Detention without trial or conviction by a court. Article 22 has two parts. The first part covers ordinary law, granting the following rights to a person arrested or detained under it:
The right to be informed of the reasons for the arrest. The right to consult a legal practitioner. hours, including travel time. The right to be released after 24 hours unless a magistrate approves further detention. These protections do not apply to enemy aliens or those detained under preventive detention laws.
UPSC 2023Polity · Miscellaneous
Q46. With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements: 1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President. 2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block. 3. The Chief Ministers of concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States. How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 244(1) of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, "Scheduled Areas" refer to regions that the President can designate as such through an order following consultation with the Governor of the respective State.
Statement 2 is correct: The largest administrative unit forming the scheduled areas has been the district, and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the block. This is consistent with how Scheduled Areas are designated based on administrative feasibility and compactness.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The executive power of a state extends to the scheduled areas therein. But the Governor has a special responsibility regarding such areas. He has to submit a report to the President regarding the administration of these areas annually or whenever so required by the President as per Paragraph 3 of the Fifth Schedule.
UPSC 2023Polity · Miscellaneous
Q47. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons. Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: ‘Prisons’/’persons detained therein’ is a "State-List" subject under Entry 4 of List II of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India. Administration and management of prisons and prisoners is the responsibility of respective State Governments who are competent to take appropriate action in this regard. Each state has its own prison rules and regulations for day-to-day administration. However, given the significance of prisons in the Criminal Justice System, the Ministry of Home Affairs has been providing regular guidance and support to the States and UTs on diverse issues relating to prison administration.
Statement 2 is correct: The Prisons Act, 1894 defines prison as, any jail or place used permanently or temporarily under the general or special orders of a State Government for the detention of prisoners, and includes all lands and buildings appurtenant thereto. Section 59 of the Prisons Act 1894 confers upon the Provincial Governments (now state governments) powers to make rules consistent with this act. The Prisons Act, 1894, laid the foundation for state-level management of prisons, and this principle was carried forward after independence under the Indian Constitution. Thus, both statements are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
UPSC 2022Polity · Historical Background
Q48. In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into "Reserved" and "Transferred" subjects. Which of the following were treated as "Reserved" subjects? 1. Administration of Justice 2. Local self-Government 3. Land Revenue 4. Police Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
The Government of India Act 1919 introduced the system of ‘dyarchy’ in provincial governance. It divided subjects into two categories: reserved and transferred. Reserved subjects like law and order, land revenue, administration of justice, finance, and police were controlled by the governor and his executive council of bureaucrats. Transferred subjects like education, health, and local self-government were managed by ministers elected from the legislative council. This was aimed at increasing Indian representation in the government, though real power remained with the British. The Act came into effect in 1921.
Additional insight:
Key Features of the Government of India Act 1919 Act Bicameral Legislature: The Indian legislature was now composed of:
Council of State (Upper House): Partially elected.
Legislative Assembly (Lower House): Majority elected, but with limited powers. Increased Participation of Indians: The number of Indians in government increased, but British officials retained veto power. Separate Electorates Extended: More communities (such as Sikhs, Anglo-Indians, and Europeans) were given separate electorates, deepening communal divisions. Limited Franchise: Only a small section of Indians (wealthy, property-owning men) were allowed to vote.
Exam tip:
Reserved = retained by British officials, Transferred = handed over to Indian ministers. If we find: Which subjects would the British be most willing to give to Indians among given subjects? Then removing that will directly give us correct option. Local Self-Government S2, These are small-scale, non-threatening, ODD ONE OUT -- it’s least likely to be "Reserved". Hence eliminate that to reach option C.
UPSC 2022Polity · Salient Features of the Constitution
Q49. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
Explanation
Option (a) is correct: The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India provides for the administration and control of scheduled areas and tribes in India. It aims to protect the interests of tribal communities and prevent the exploitation of tribal lands and resources. One of the key provisions under the Fifth Schedule is that it restricts the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people in tribal areas, thus safeguarding their land rights and ensuring their protection against land alienation.
Option (b) is incorrect: This would create a local self-governing body in that area that is not specifically tied to the Fifth Schedule, as local self-governance is addressed in other parts of the Constitution, like the Panchayati Raj system.
Option (c) is incorrect: This would convert that area into the Union Territory is incorrect. The Fifth Schedule does not convert any area into a Union Territory; it applies to scheduled areas within existing states.
Option (d) is incorrect: The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State is incorrect. The Fifth Schedule does not declare a state as a special category state. According to Article 244(1), the President defines Scheduled Areas, and the Governor, after consulting the Tribal Advisory Council (TAC), can make regulations for their governance. These regulations may include restrictions on land transfers to non-tribals, the allocation of land to Scheduled Tribes, and the regulation of money-lending activities involving tribal communities.
UPSC 2022Polity · Fundamental Rights
Q50. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements: 1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty. 2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company. 3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The word Mandamus means "we command". It directs activity and commands issued by the court to public officials asking him to perform. It is issued against any public body, corporation, inferior court, tribunal or government for the same purpose. Mandamus cannot be issued against a private individual or body.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In specific situations, Mandamus can be used against a government corporation and/or company and if a private entity till it is entrusted with a public duty. Supreme Court in Pradeep Kumar Biwas vs Indian Institute of Chemical Biology 2002 has deliberated upon this in detail.
Statement 3 is correct: The meaning of the word Quo Warranto is "By what authority or warrant". Quo Warranto is issued by the court to inquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office. Unlike the other writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person. Note: UPSC has given Option (d) as the official answer.
Exam tip:
For S2, Mandamus will not lie" absolute claim "Even if it is a Govt company" denies any exception. This is a red flag. No flexibility = likely false. Can a government company ever be involved in a public duty? LOGIC says: YES. So, how can you say Mandamus will never lie against a Govt Co.? Hence likely false.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
41
2023
(b) Only two
42
2023
(b) Only two
43
2023
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
44
2023
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
45
2023
(b) Only two
46
2023
(b) Only two
47
2023
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
48
2022
(c) 1, 3 and 4
49
2022
(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
50
2022
(c) 1 and 3 only
What UPSC has tested in Polity
Parliament, Fundamental Rights, the Higher Judiciary and Local Government together account for the largest share of Polity questions in this set.
Recent papers test statements about institutions: the Governor, the President’s ordinance and pardoning powers, Lokpal, Scheduled Areas and the Speaker’s office.
Older papers lean on single-fact recall: which Article, which Amendment, which Schedule.
The 2025 paper’s Polity questions fall in Parliament, President, Governor, Constitutional Amendment, Schedules, Centre-State Relations, Local Government and non-constitutional bodies.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Polity?
This page covers 365 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Polity, asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
Which Polity chapters has UPSC asked about most?
In this set, Parliament has the most questions, followed by the Miscellaneous group, Fundamental Rights, the Higher Judiciary, Local Government, the Directive Principles and the constitutional bodies. Small chapters such as Citizenship and Judicial Review have only one question each.
How do I practise Polity PYQs chapter by chapter?
Use the Chapter filter on this page, or open a chapter link such as Preamble or Parliament. Each chapter page gives its own questions, answer key and the facts UPSC has tested, so you can finish one topic before moving to the next.
Does this page include the 2025 UPSC Prelims paper?
Yes. The 2025 paper’s Polity questions are included, and you can open them alone with the Year filter set to 2025. They cover Parliament, the President’s powers, the Governor, Schedules, Panchayats, Lokpal and Centre-State bodies.
Are cancelled or disputed UPSC questions included?
No. Questions UPSC cancelled, and questions where the available answer key is disputed, are left out so that every question here has a single correct answer with an explanation you can rely on.
