365 previous year UPSC Prelims Polity questions are on this page, from 1996 to 2025, across 30 exam years and 29 chapters. Parliament is the largest chapter, followed by Miscellaneous, Fundamental Rights and the Higher Judiciary. Filter by chapter to practise one topic, or by year to see how a single paper treated Polity. Every option opens with its correct answer and a full explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 31–40 of 365 questions
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UPSC 2024Polity · Miscellaneous
Q31. Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India? 1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution. 2. Emergency provisions are given in part XVIII of the Constitution. 3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution. Select the answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Part IXA of the Constitution was inserted by the Constitution (Seventy-fourth Amendment) Act, 1992. It contains provisions for local self-government at the urban level (including powers of the municipalities).
Statement 2 is correct: Emergency provisions are outlined in Part XVIII of the Constitution, covering Articles 352 to 360, including National Emergency (Article 352), State Emergency (Article 356), and Financial Emergency (Article 360). These provisions empower the Central government to address any extraordinary situations effectively.
Statement 3 is correct: Part XX deals with the provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution (Art 368). Parliament may, in the exercise of its constituent power, amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of the Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down in this part.
UPSC 2023Polity · Historical Background
Q32. By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?
Explanation
The Charter Act of 1833 marked the final step towards the centralization of British power in India. It elevated the Governor-General of Bengal to the position of Governor-General of India, granting him full civil and military authority over the entire British-ruled territory in India, with Lord William Bentinck becoming the first Governor-General of India.
Additional insight:
The Act also stripped the Governors of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. Under this Act, laws were referred to as "Acts" instead of "Regulations," as was the case under previous acts. Additionally, it ended the East India Company’s role as a commercial entity, transforming it into a purely administrative body.
UPSC 2023Polity · Basic Concepts
Q33. In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean?
Explanation
In modern times, The Doctrine of ‘Due Process of Law’ has its origins in the USA Constitution. The due process of law doctrine not only examines whether a law exists to deprive a person of life or liberty but also assesses its fairness, justice, and non-arbitrariness. Unlike "Procedure established by law," where the judiciary focuses only on the legality and competence of the legislation, the Supreme Court, in the case of due process, also evaluates the law’s rationale and reasonableness. While "Due Process" primarily concerns legal procedures, it also emphasizes fairness and justice in law enforcement, aligning with the principles of natural justice, such as the right to a fair hearing, the right to be heard, and the right to an impartial tribunal.
Exam tip:
It would be illogical to say due process is same as procedure established by law, even plain reading of both can prove both are different, hence eliminate option B. "Equality before law" (Article 14) is not even the same article as due process (A. 21), Hence Clearly false. Now, "Natural justice" = fairness + impartiality + right to be heard + no bias, is much more comprehensive and wider than mere "fair application " hence more probable to be true.
UPSC 2023Polity · Basic Concepts
Q34. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country?
Explanation
The Constitution of India is a foundational document outlining the basic laws, principles, and structure of the state, guiding all government actions. It serves as a legal, political, and social instrument, acting as the supreme law under which all regulations and institutions function. The Constitution defines citizens’ rights, ensuring they are protected from infringement by the state. Politically, it establishes, distributes, and limits government power, while socially, it reflects shared values and a civic vision for the state.
UPSC 2023Polity · President
Q35. Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India: 1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College. 2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State. 3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala. 4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh. How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 54 of the Constitution, the President of India is elected by the Members of an Electoral College consisting of:
The elected members of both Houses of Parliament.
The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of all States [including the National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry]. The Members nominated to either House of Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States, including NCT of Delhi and Union Territory of Puducherry, are not eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The higher the number of elective Assembly seats, the higher the value of the vote of each MLA of that State is not always true as it depends on the ratio of the total population to the total number of elective seats.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The value of the vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is less than that of Kerala, as it depends on the ratio of the total population to the total number of elective seats.
Statement 4 is correct: Based on the ratio of the total population to the total number of elective seats in the State value of the vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh.
UPSC 2023Polity · President
Q36. Consider the following statements: 1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/ her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid. 2. Elections for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place. 3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/ she has to declare his/her assent. How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: If the election of a person as President is declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by him before the date of such declaration of the Supreme Court are not invalidated and continue to remain in force.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Where an assembly is dissolved, the members cease to be qualified to vote in Presidential elections, even if fresh elections to the dissolved assembly are not held before the Presidential elections.
Statement 3 is incorrect: When a bill is sent to the President after it has been passed by the Parliament, he can give his assent to the bill, withhold his assent to the bill or return the bill (if it is not a money bill) for reconsideration of the Parliament. No time limit has been fixed by the Constitution within which the President has to give his/her assent to the bill.
Exam tip:
S1 is an extreme statement and violates common sense. The President performs major constitutional functions -- signing laws, appointments, pardons, etc. If those be-come invalid, it would create a constitutional crisis. So logically, such actions must be protected retroactively. For S2, Use this guiding test: "Does this condition make the whole system hostage to one state’s situation?" If yes That’s logically faulty for a pan-India constitutional post like the President. For S3, If the Constitution had set time limits, there’d be no controversy over "pocket veto" (where President takes no action). The fact that such debates happen = Time limits don’t exist. Hence all three are likely false.
UPSC 2023Polity · Parliament
Q37. With reference to the Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill. 2. When the Lok Sabha transmits the Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill; it can only make recommendations. 3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for the Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for the Finance Bill. How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: A Finance Bill (other than a Money Bill) is not solely a Money Bill, so the Rajya Sabha has the power to suggest amendments or reject it. However, If the finance bill is a money bill Rajyasabha has no power to amend or reject the bill.
Statement 2 is correct: As per Article 110, Rajya Sabha has no power to amend or reject a Money Bill. It can only make recommendations, which the Lok Sabha may accept or reject. If Rajya Sabha does not act within 14 days, the Money Bill is deemed to have been passed.
Statement 3 is correct: For the Money Bill, the Lok Sabha’s decision is final. So there is no question of deadlock. However, for a Finance Bill(other than Money Bill), in case of a disagreement, a joint sitting of both Houses may be called, as it is a normal Bill and not a Money Bill.
UPSC 2023Polity · Higher Judiciary: Supreme Court and High Courts
Q38. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for the maintenance of efficiency of administration. Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court of India has held in several judgments - Indra Sawhney v Union of India (1992) and M Nagaraj v Union of India (2006) that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution would be limited by Article 335, which provides for ‘maintenance of efficiency of administration’, while considering the claims of the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and the Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the making of appointments to public services and posts.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 335 mentions that the claims of Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) must be considered in appointments to services and posts, but this must be consistent with the maintenance of efficiency in administration. However, Article 335 does not define the term "efficiency of administration", leaving its interpretation to judicial and administrative discretion. This gap in interpretation was filled by a two-judge bench in the B K Pavitra (II) v Union of India (2019), as it held that ‘efficiency of administration in the affairs of the union or of a state must be defined in an inclusive sense, where diverse segments of society find representation as a true aspiration of governance by and for the people’.
Exam tip:
For S2, The word "defines" is a strong and rigid claim. Think practically: The Constitution is not a dictionary. It doesn’t explicitly list out or define "efficiency of administration". Hence likely false. Gives option C as correct..
UPSC 2023Polity · Constitutional Bodies
Q39. Consider the following organisations/bodies in India: 1. The National Commission for Backward Classes 2. The National Human Rights Commission 3. The National Law Commission 4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
Explanation
Option 1 is correct: The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was initially constituted by the Central Govt through the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993, which was repealed through the National Commission for Backward Classes (Repeal) Act, 2018. At present, the commission has been accorded Constitutional Status and constituted through the Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018 whereby Article 338B has been inserted, forming a Commission for the socially and educationally backward classes to be known as National Commission for Backward Classes.
Option 2 is incorrect: The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India was established under the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993 and amended by the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006. It is in conformity with the Paris Principles, for the promotion and protection of human rights. Section 2(1)(d) of the PHRA defines Human Rights as the rights relating to life, liberty, equality and dignity of the individual guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in the International Covenants and enforceable by courts in India.
Option 3 is incorrect: The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body and is constituted by a notification of the Government of India, Ministry of Law & Justice, Department of Legal Affairs with a definite terms of reference to carry out research in the field of law and the Commission makes recommendations to the Government (in the form of Reports) as per its terms of reference.
Option 4 is incorrect: The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC), India, is a quasi-judicial commission in India that was set up in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 (now replaced by the Consumer Protection Act, 2019).
UPSC 2023Polity · Constitutional Bodies
Q40. Consider the following: 1. Demographic performance 2. Forest and ecology 3. Governance reforms 4. Stable government 5. Tax and fiscal efforts For horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?
Explanation
The Fifteenth Finance Commission (XVFC)’s Term of Reference was unique and wide-ranging in many ways. The Commission was asked to recommend performance incentives for States in many areas like the power sector, adoption of DBT, solid waste management, etc. The XV FC’s Report is organised in four volumes and deals with two kinds of devolution:
Vertical Devolution: distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and states. Horizontal Devolution: distribution of net proceeds of taxes among the states. Options 1, 2 and 5 are correct:
Horizontal Devolution based on principles of need, equity and performance, the overall devolution formula is as follows:
Criteria Weight (%) Tax and Fiscal Efforts 2.5 Demographic Performance 12.5 Demographic performance: States with better performance in controlling population growth were rewarded (12.5% weightage). Forest and ecology: States with a larger share of dense forest area received weightage (10%). Tax and fiscal efforts: States with higher tax collection efficiency were rewarded (2.5%). Options 3 and 4 are incorrect: Governance reforms and stable government were not part of the criteria used by the Fifteenth Finance Commission for horizontal devolution.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
31
2024
(d) 1, 2 and 3
32
2023
(d) The Charter Act of 1833
33
2023
(a) The principle of natural justice
34
2023
(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
35
2023
(a) Only one
36
2023
(d) None
37
2023
(b) Only two
38
2023
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
39
2023
(a) Only one
40
2023
(b) Only three
What UPSC has tested in Polity
Parliament, Fundamental Rights, the Higher Judiciary and Local Government together account for the largest share of Polity questions in this set.
Recent papers test statements about institutions: the Governor, the President’s ordinance and pardoning powers, Lokpal, Scheduled Areas and the Speaker’s office.
Older papers lean on single-fact recall: which Article, which Amendment, which Schedule.
The 2025 paper’s Polity questions fall in Parliament, President, Governor, Constitutional Amendment, Schedules, Centre-State Relations, Local Government and non-constitutional bodies.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Polity?
This page covers 365 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Polity, asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
Which Polity chapters has UPSC asked about most?
In this set, Parliament has the most questions, followed by the Miscellaneous group, Fundamental Rights, the Higher Judiciary, Local Government, the Directive Principles and the constitutional bodies. Small chapters such as Citizenship and Judicial Review have only one question each.
How do I practise Polity PYQs chapter by chapter?
Use the Chapter filter on this page, or open a chapter link such as Preamble or Parliament. Each chapter page gives its own questions, answer key and the facts UPSC has tested, so you can finish one topic before moving to the next.
Does this page include the 2025 UPSC Prelims paper?
Yes. The 2025 paper’s Polity questions are included, and you can open them alone with the Year filter set to 2025. They cover Parliament, the President’s powers, the Governor, Schedules, Panchayats, Lokpal and Centre-State bodies.
Are cancelled or disputed UPSC questions included?
No. Questions UPSC cancelled, and questions where the available answer key is disputed, are left out so that every question here has a single correct answer with an explanation you can rely on.
