This page lists 352 previous year UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination (General Studies Paper-I) questions on Polity, asked between 1996 to 2024. Choose an option to see the correct answer and the full explanation on the same page.
Explanations state facts as they stood in the year each question was asked, so words like “recently” or “currently” refer to that year, not today. For the present position, check the latest Current Affairs.
Showing 21–30 of 352 questions
UPSC 2023Polity · Basic Concepts
Q21. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country?
Explanation
The Constitution of India is a foundational document outlining the basic laws, principles, and structure of the state, guiding all government actions. It serves as a legal, political, and social instrument, acting as the supreme law under which all regulations and institutions function. The Constitution defines citizens’ rights, ensuring they are protected from infringement by the state. Politically, it establishes, distributes, and limits government power, while socially, it reflects shared values and a civic vision for the state.
UPSC 2023Polity · President
Q22. Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India: 1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College. 2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State. 3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala. 4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh. How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 54 of the Constitution, the President of India is elected by the Members of an Electoral College consisting of:
The elected members of both Houses of Parliament.
The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of all States [including the National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry]. The Members nominated to either House of Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States, including NCT of Delhi and Union Territory of Puducherry, are not eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The higher the number of elective Assembly seats, the higher the value of the vote of each MLA of that State is not always true as it depends on the ratio of the total population to the total number of elective seats.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The value of the vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is less than that of Kerala, as it depends on the ratio of the total population to the total number of elective seats.
Statement 4 is correct: Based on the ratio of the total population to the total number of elective seats in the State value of the vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh.
UPSC 2023Polity · President
Q23. Consider the following statements: 1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/ her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid. 2. Elections for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place. 3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/ she has to declare his/her assent. How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: If the election of a person as President is declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by him before the date of such declaration of the Supreme Court are not invalidated and continue to remain in force.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Where an assembly is dissolved, the members cease to be qualified to vote in Presidential elections, even if fresh elections to the dissolved assembly are not held before the Presidential elections.
Statement 3 is incorrect: When a bill is sent to the President after it has been passed by the Parliament, he can give his assent to the bill, withhold his assent to the bill or return the bill (if it is not a money bill) for reconsideration of the Parliament. No time limit has been fixed by the Constitution within which the President has to give his/her assent to the bill.
Exam tip:
S1 is an extreme statement and violates common sense. The President performs major constitutional functions -- signing laws, appointments, pardons, etc. If those be-come invalid, it would create a constitutional crisis. So logically, such actions must be protected retroactively. For S2, Use this guiding test: "Does this condition make the whole system hostage to one state’s situation?" If yes That’s logically faulty for a pan-India constitutional post like the President. For S3, If the Constitution had set time limits, there’d be no controversy over "pocket veto" (where President takes no action). The fact that such debates happen = Time limits don’t exist. Hence all three are likely false.
UPSC 2023Polity · Parliament
Q24. With reference to the Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill. 2. When the Lok Sabha transmits the Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill; it can only make recommendations. 3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for the Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for the Finance Bill. How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: A Finance Bill (other than a Money Bill) is not solely a Money Bill, so the Rajya Sabha has the power to suggest amendments or reject it. However, If the finance bill is a money bill Rajyasabha has no power to amend or reject the bill.
Statement 2 is correct: As per Article 110, Rajya Sabha has no power to amend or reject a Money Bill. It can only make recommendations, which the Lok Sabha may accept or reject. If Rajya Sabha does not act within 14 days, the Money Bill is deemed to have been passed.
Statement 3 is correct: For the Money Bill, the Lok Sabha’s decision is final. So there is no question of deadlock. However, for a Finance Bill(other than Money Bill), in case of a disagreement, a joint sitting of both Houses may be called, as it is a normal Bill and not a Money Bill.
UPSC 2023Polity · Higher Judiciary: Supreme Court and High Courts
Q25. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for the maintenance of efficiency of administration. Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court of India has held in several judgments - Indra Sawhney v Union of India (1992) and M Nagaraj v Union of India (2006) that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution would be limited by Article 335, which provides for ‘maintenance of efficiency of administration’, while considering the claims of the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and the Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the making of appointments to public services and posts.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 335 mentions that the claims of Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) must be considered in appointments to services and posts, but this must be consistent with the maintenance of efficiency in administration. However, Article 335 does not define the term "efficiency of administration", leaving its interpretation to judicial and administrative discretion. This gap in interpretation was filled by a two-judge bench in the B K Pavitra (II) v Union of India (2019), as it held that ‘efficiency of administration in the affairs of the union or of a state must be defined in an inclusive sense, where diverse segments of society find representation as a true aspiration of governance by and for the people’.
Exam tip:
For S2, The word "defines" is a strong and rigid claim. Think practically: The Constitution is not a dictionary. It doesn’t explicitly list out or define "efficiency of administration". Hence likely false. Gives option C as correct..
UPSC 2023Polity · Constitutional Bodies
Q26. Consider the following organisations/bodies in India: 1. The National Commission for Backward Classes 2. The National Human Rights Commission 3. The National Law Commission 4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
Explanation
Option 1 is correct: The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was initially constituted by the Central Govt through the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993, which was repealed through the National Commission for Backward Classes (Repeal) Act, 2018. At present, the commission has been accorded Constitutional Status and constituted through the Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018 whereby Article 338B has been inserted, forming a Commission for the socially and educationally backward classes to be known as National Commission for Backward Classes.
Option 2 is incorrect: The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India was established under the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993 and amended by the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006. It is in conformity with the Paris Principles, for the promotion and protection of human rights. Section 2(1)(d) of the PHRA defines Human Rights as the rights relating to life, liberty, equality and dignity of the individual guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in the International Covenants and enforceable by courts in India.
Option 3 is incorrect: The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body and is constituted by a notification of the Government of India, Ministry of Law & Justice, Department of Legal Affairs with a definite terms of reference to carry out research in the field of law and the Commission makes recommendations to the Government (in the form of Reports) as per its terms of reference.
Option 4 is incorrect: The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC), India, is a quasi-judicial commission in India that was set up in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 (now replaced by the Consumer Protection Act, 2019).
UPSC 2023Polity · Constitutional Bodies
Q27. Consider the following: 1. Demographic performance 2. Forest and ecology 3. Governance reforms 4. Stable government 5. Tax and fiscal efforts For horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?
Explanation
The Fifteenth Finance Commission (XVFC)’s Term of Reference was unique and wide-ranging in many ways. The Commission was asked to recommend performance incentives for States in many areas like the power sector, adoption of DBT, solid waste management, etc. The XV FC’s Report is organised in four volumes and deals with two kinds of devolution:
Vertical Devolution: distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and states. Horizontal Devolution: distribution of net proceeds of taxes among the states. Options 1, 2 and 5 are correct:
Horizontal Devolution based on principles of need, equity and performance, the overall devolution formula is as follows:
Criteria Weight (%) Tax and Fiscal Efforts 2.5 Demographic Performance 12.5 Demographic performance: States with better performance in controlling population growth were rewarded (12.5% weightage). Forest and ecology: States with a larger share of dense forest area received weightage (10%). Tax and fiscal efforts: States with higher tax collection efficiency were rewarded (2.5%). Options 3 and 4 are incorrect: Governance reforms and stable government were not part of the criteria used by the Fifteenth Finance Commission for horizontal devolution.
UPSC 2023Polity · Miscellaneous
Q28. With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: 1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. 2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. 3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the States/Union Territories. The Ministry of Home Affairs provides policy guidance, but the implementation is state-specific.
Statement 2 is correct: The role of Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary Force to the police in the maintenance of internal security situations, help the community in any kind of emergency such as an air raid, fire, cyclone, earthquake, epidemic etc., help in the maintenance of essential services, promote communal harmony and assist the administration in protecting weaker sections, participate in socio- economic and welfare activities and perform Civil Defence duties.
Statement 3 is correct: Fifteen Border Wing Home Guards (BWHG) Battalions (Bns) have been raised in the border States viz. Punjab (6 Bns.), Rajasthan (4 Bns.), Gujarat (2 Bns.) and one each Battalion for Meghalaya, Tripura and West Bengal to serve as an auxiliary to Border Security Force for preventing infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, guarding of Vital Areas/ Vital Points and lines of communication in the vulnerable area at the time of external aggression.
UPSC 2023Polity · Miscellaneous
Q29. With reference to India, consider the following pairs: 1. Unauthorised wearing of the official police or Military uniforms: The Official Secrets Act, 1923 2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties: The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others: The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Explanation
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Section 6 of the Official Secrets Act,1923, deals with the unauthorised use of uniforms, falsification of reports, forgery, personation, and false documents.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Section 7 of the Official Secrets Act,1923 deals with the infraction of interfering with ‘Officers of the Police’ or ‘Members of the Armed Forces of the Union’ engaged in the discharge of their duties.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 outlines that whoever uses a firearm in a ‘rash or negligent manner’ or in ‘celebratory gunfire’ so as to endanger human life or personal safety of others shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine which may extend to rupees one lakh, or with both.
UPSC 2023Polity · Miscellaneous
Q30. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002: Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm × 400 mm. Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
The Indian National Flag represents the hopes and aspirations of more than 1 billion people, and the display of the National flag is governed by the provisions of the Emblems and Names(Prevention of Improper Use Act, 1950) and the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971. Additionally, the Flag Code of India, 2002, brings together all such laws and practices in the form of guidance to all. Statement-I is incorrect: According to the Flag Code of India, the standard sizes of the Indian National Flag are:
Flag Size No. Dimensions (mm)
1. 6300° 4200
2. 3600° 2400
3. 2700° 1800
4. 1800° 1200
5. 1350° 900
6. 900° 600
7. 450° 300
8. 225° 150
9. 150° 100 Statement-II is correct: According to the Flag Code of India, the National Flag shall be rectangular in shape. The Flag can be of any size, but the ratio of the length to the height (width) of the National Flag should be 3:2.
Additional insight:
An appropriate size should be chosen for display:
Aircraft on VVIP Flight: 450 x 300 mm.
Motor Cars: 225 x 150 mm Table Flag: 150 x 100 mm
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
21
2023
(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
22
2023
(a) Only one
23
2023
(d) None
24
2023
(b) Only two
25
2023
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
26
2023
(a) Only one
27
2023
(b) Only three
28
2023
(b) Only two
29
2023
(b) Only two
30
2023
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Polity?
This page covers 352 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Polity, asked between 1996 to 2024. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for Polity?
Questions on Polity are available for 29 years, from 1996 to 2024. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.