UPSC 2023 Prelims Questions with Answers

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Mercury is used in Artisanal Small-Scale Gold Mining (ASGM). The majority of the mercury emissions associated with the ASGM sector come from the burning of mercury-gold amalgam, which is responsible for 38% of all anthropogenic mercury emissions to the atmosphere.

Statement 2 is correct: Mercury is released into the atmosphere via the burning of coal and other fossil fuels. Because coal has far higher mercury content than other fossil fuels, coal-fired power stations frequently produce more mercury pollution than power plants that burn other fossil fuels.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) considers mercury vapor concentrations above 0.01 mg/m³ hazardous for prolonged exposure, with an acceptable limit of 0.1 mg/m³ based on an 8-hour time-weighted average. Both American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists (ACGIH) and National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) recommend even lower exposure levels to minimize health risks.

Explanation

Statement-I is correct: According to the United Nations’ World Water Development Report 2022, India extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year. This indicates that India has a significant reliance on groundwater resources for various purposes, including irrigation, drinking water, and industrial use. Statement-II is not correct: Approximately 89% of India’s groundwater is utilised for irrigation purposes. The primary portion of the total groundwater extracted in India serves irrigation needs rather than being allocated for drinking and sanitation purposes. Only a small portion of groundwater is utilized for domestic and industrial purposes.

Explanation

Investments can be categorized into tangible and intangible assets. Tangible assets have a physical presence, while intangible assets lack a physical form. Intangible assets derive their value from intellectual or legal rights.

Option (c) is correct:

Brand recognition is an intangible asset because it does not have a physical form but contributes significantly to a company’s value. Strong brand recognition enhances consumer trust, customer loyalty, and market competitiveness. Example: Coca-Cola’s brand value is estimated at billions of dollars, despite not being a physical asset. Intellectual property (patents, trademarks, copyrights, trade secrets) is intangible and provides significant competitive advantage. Example: Patents for pharmaceutical drugs are valuable intangible investments for pharma companies. Mailing List of Clients is an intangible asset because it enhances marketing capabilities and customer retention. Example: E-commerce companies leverage customer mailing lists for targeted marketing. Inventory consists of physical goods that a company holds for sale or production. It is a tangible asset because it has a physical form and can be seen, touched, and measured. Example: A company like Reliance Retail holds inventory in the form of clothes, electronics, and groceries, which are physical goods. The Companies Act, 2013 and accounting standards (Ind AS) classify inventory as a tangible asset.

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect: As of 2022 India’s share in global merchandise exports was approximately 1.8% and not 3.2%. This figure has seen a modest increase from 1.69% in 2014 to 1.82% in 2022.

Statement II is correct: The Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme was introduced by the Indian government in 2020 to boost domestic manufacturing across various sectors. Both local and foreign companies have actively participated in this initiative including major global players like Dell, HP, Foxconn, Lenovo, etc.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The MSMED Act, 2006 originally defined medium enterprises as those with investments in plant and machinery between 5 crore and 10 crore. As per the latest guidelines of 2020 a medium enterprise presently is defined as one where the investment in plant and machinery or equipment does not exceed 50 crore and turnover does not exceed 250 crore and not 15 crore to 25 crore. The following table provides the details of revised limits:

Category Old Capital Old Turnover New Capital New Turn-over Micro 25 Lakh 10 Lakh 1 Crore 5 Crore Small 5 Crore 2 Crore 10 Crore 50 Crore Medium 10 Crore 5 Crore 50 Crore 250 Crore

Statement 2 is correct: The Reserve Bank of India’s Master Directions on Priority Sector Lending (PSL) specify that bank loans to Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises are eligible for classification under the priority sector but subject to certain conditions. While loans to micro and small enterprises are fully eligible, loans to medium enterprises are considered under PSL only up to a certain limit. Specifically, bank loans up to 10 crore per borrower to medium enterprises engaged in providing or rendering of services are eligible for PSL classification.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Carbon fibre is a material consisting of very thin filaments of carbon atoms. Carbon fibers are fibers characterized by a carbon content of 90% or higher. The principal rationale behind the aerospace industry’s adoption of carbon fiber lies in the weight reduction it offers.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Carbon fibre is environmentally friendly and exhibits a longer life cycle. There are numerous technologies to recycle carbon fibres.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: There are two types of body waves-P and S waves. The P-waves and S-waves are also known as primary waves and secondary waves, respectively. The P-waves move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface. Therefore, in a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves. The S-waves arrive at the surface with some time lag.

Statement 2 is correct: In P-waves, the media particle vibrates parallel to the direction of the wave. Thus it causes the to-and-fro motion. Further, in the S-waves media particles vibrate perpendicular (up and down at right angles) to the direction of wave propagation i.e. in the right angle. P-waves S-waves Arrival Times Surface Waves Amplitude

Explanation

Statement I is correct: Carbon markets are trading systems in which carbon credits are sold and bought. Companies or individuals can use carbon markets to compensate for their greenhouse gas emissions by purchasing carbon credits from entities that remove or reduce greenhouse gas emissions. One tradable carbon credit equals one tonne of carbon dioxide or the equivalent amount of a different greenhouse gas reduced, sequestered or avoided. Carbon markets, including compliance and voluntary markets, are widely recognized as effective tools for reducing greenhouse gas emissions. They incentivize emission reductions by allowing entities to trade carbon credits, making them a key mechanism in global climate action.

Statement II is correct: Carbon markets help reduce green-house gas emissions by assigning value to carbon and creating a market for trading carbon credits, which represent the right to emit a certain amount of greenhouse gases. They enable more efficient allocation of emission reduction efforts and facilitate the exchange of allowances between public and private entities, of-ten involving financial transactions. Carbon markets can generate revenue for governments through mechanisms like the sale of emission allowances in compliance markets. However, this is not their primary purpose, as carbon markets primarily facilitate trading between private entities to reduce emissions efficiently.

Explanation

Pair 1 is not correct: Cepheids, also known as Cepheid Variables, are stars that periodically brighten and dim. Due to their behaviour, these objects can function as cosmic indicators, extending their usefulness as yardsticks for distances up to several tens of millions of light-years away, owing to a consistent relationship between their brightness and other factors.

Pair 2 is not correct: A nebula is a very large cloud of gas and dust in outer space. A dead star’s explosion, such as a supernova, releases gas and dust, which in turn forms certain nebulae (more than one nebula). Other nebulae are places where brand-new stars are only starting to develop. It is for this reason that some nebulae are referred to as "star nurseries."

Pair 3 is correct: Pulsars are extremely compact, rapidly km (12 miles). They are virtually entirely made of neutrons that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse.

Explanation

The term "Global Navigation Satellite System" (GNSS) encompasses any satellite network offering positioning, navigation, and timing (PNT) services either globally or within specific regions.The Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS) stands as a regional GNSS owned by the Government of Japan, aiming to bolster coverage in East Asia and Oceania while complementing GPS.