UPSC 2023 Environment and Ecology Questions with Answers
16 previous year UPSC Prelims questions on Environment and Ecology in the UPSC 2023 Prelims. Choose an option to see the answer and explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 1–10 of 16 questions
Browse Environment and Ecology chapters
UPSC 2023Environment and Ecology · Biodiversity
Q1. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India. Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Marsupials are a group of mammals commonly referred to as pouched mammals, such as kangaroos and wallabies. These animals are characterized by giving birth to underdeveloped young, which then continue their development in the mother’s pouch (marsupium). They give live birth, but they do not have long gestation times like placental mammals. The pouch provides protection and access to nourishment during this critical growth stage. Statement-I is correct: Marsupials can be observed in regions spanning Australia, Papua New Guinea, and South America. They are not naturally found in India. Examples of marsupials include kangaroos, wallabies, wombats, opossums, bandicoots, and koalas. Statement-II is incorrect: These creatures predominantly inhabit arid and semi-arid areas, and they are not restricted solely to montane grasslands. Marsupials are highly adaptable and thrive in a variety of habitats, including forests, deserts, grasslands. Additionally, they coexist with predators like dingoes, eagles, and foxes in their natural environments.
Exam tip:
"ONLY’ is strong phrase. Also, again use observed logic:
Kangaroos are marsupials, found in Australia, is Australia montane grassland? No!, hence S2 is likely false.
UPSC 2023Environment and Ecology · Biodiversity
Q2. Consider the following fauna: 1. Lion-tailed Macaque 2. Malabar Civet 3. Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?
Explanation
Option 1 is incorrect: Lion-tailed Macaque, also referred to as the wanderoo, inhabits the upper canopy of tropical evergreen rainforests and monsoon forests across various elevations. This species is endemic to the Western Ghats. They are diurnal which means it is active during the day and not nocturnal. IUCN Red List: Endangered Option 2 is correct: Malabar Civet is endemic to the Western Ghats of India. It is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List. The Malabar civet is considered nocturnal and so elusive that little is known about its biology and ecology apart from habitat use. IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered Option 3 is incorrect: The Sambar, a large deer native to the Indian subcontinent and Southeast Asia, is crepuscular, active during twilight (morning and evening), and occasionally after sunset. Males are mostly solitary while females form small herds of up to 16 individuals. IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
UPSC 2023Environment and Ecology · Biodiversity
Q3. Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?
Explanation
The waggle dance is a unique form of communication performed by honey bees (Apis mellifera) to convey information about the direction and distance of food sources, water, or potential nesting sites to other members of their hive. Worker honeybees, all of which are females, constitute the only bees typically observed flying outside the hive by the general populace. Bees perform two distinct types of dances: The Round Dance and the Tail-wagging or Waggle Dance. The waggle dance of honeybees has long been recognized as a behaviour that communicates in-formation about resource location from a foraging worker to her nest mates.
UPSC 2023Environment and Ecology · Biodiversity
Q4. Consider the following statements: 1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water. 2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water. 3. Some microorganisms can grow in a highly acidic environment with a pH below 3. How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Microorganisms are classified into three primary groups on the basis of their preferred range of temperature:
Statement 1 is correct: Hyperthermophiles such as Pyrobolus and Pyrodictium can grow at temperatures exceeding 100°C especially in high-pressure environments like deep-sea hydrothermal vents.
Statement 2 is correct: Psychrophiles such as Colwellia psy-chrerythraea and Pseudomonas syringae can grow at temperatures as low as -10°C and remain metabolically active even at -20°C in environments like Arctic permafrost, deep-sea polar waters, and glacial ice. These microbes produce cryoprotectants such as antifreeze proteins to prevent ice crystal formation in-side their cells.
Statement 3 is correct: Acidophiles such as Ferroplasma acidar-manus and Acidithiobacillus ferrooxidans thrive in environments with pH as low as 0.5, such as acidic hot springs, acid mine drain-ages, and volcanic sulfur pools. These microbes have evolved mechanisms to pump out excess protons (H ions) to maintain internal pH stability. Some acidophiles like Thermoplasma lack a cell wall but possess specialized membrane structures to withstand extreme acidity.
Exam tip:
"Some" = possibility logic, not absolute. If even one species of organism does something, the statement is likely correct. UPSC uses "some" to lower the burden of proof harder to eliminate. Hence all statements are likely correct.
UPSC 2023Environment and Ecology · Biodiversity
Q5. Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?
Explanation
Orangutans are highly intelligent great apes known for their tool-using abilities. They have been observed breaking off small branches and using them as tools to scrape insects from holes in trees or logs. This behavior demonstrates their advanced cognitive skills, problem-solving abilities, and adaptability in foraging. None of the other listed animals.
UPSC 2023Environment and Ecology · Biodiversity
Q6. Consider the following statements: 1. In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realisation of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. 2. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: In India, Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) are established at the local level under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) and State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) work with BMCs to regulate access to biological resources and traditional knowledge, ensuring compliance with the Nagoya Protocol.
Statement 2 is correct: Biological Diversity Act, 2002 empowers BMCs to determine Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) mechanisms for biological resources found within their jurisdiction. They can levy collection fees on any person or entity accessing biological resources for commercial use.
UPSC 2023Environment and Ecology · Pollution
Q7. Consider the following: 1. Aerosols 2. Foam agents 3. Fire retardants 4. Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?
Explanation
Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are a climate "Super-Pollutant" - Greenhouse gases with hundreds to thousands of times the heat-trapping power of carbon dioxide (CO₂). HFCs are synthetic gases used in air conditioning systems, aerosol propellants, foam- blowing agents, solvents, and flame retardants. These gases were first developed as alternatives to ozone- depleting chemicals, but after their rollout, it was learned that their release to the atmosphere during manufacturing processes and leakage during use, servicing, and retirement/replacement of equipment poses a grave threat to our climate. Lubricants are typically based on oils and synthetic esters, not HFCs.
UPSC 2023Environment and Ecology · Pollution
Q8. Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution:
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Mercury is used in Artisanal Small-Scale Gold Mining (ASGM). The majority of the mercury emissions associated with the ASGM sector come from the burning of mercury-gold amalgam, which is responsible for 38% of all anthropogenic mercury emissions to the atmosphere.
Statement 2 is correct: Mercury is released into the atmosphere via the burning of coal and other fossil fuels. Because coal has far higher mercury content than other fossil fuels, coal-fired power stations frequently produce more mercury pollution than power plants that burn other fossil fuels.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) considers mercury vapor concentrations above 0.01 mg/m³ hazardous for prolonged exposure, with an acceptable limit of 0.1 mg/m³ based on an 8-hour time-weighted average. Both American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists (ACGIH) and National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) recommend even lower exposure levels to minimize health risks.
UPSC 2023Environment and Ecology · Pollution
Q9. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: According to the United Nations’ World Water Development Report, 2022’, India extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year. Statement-II: India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of the world’s population living in its Territory. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Statement-I is correct: According to the United Nations’ World Water Development Report 2022, India extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year. This indicates that India has a significant reliance on groundwater resources for various purposes, including irrigation, drinking water, and industrial use. Statement-II is not correct: Approximately 89% of India’s groundwater is utilised for irrigation purposes. The primary portion of the total groundwater extracted in India serves irrigation needs rather than being allocated for drinking and sanitation purposes. Only a small portion of groundwater is utilized for domestic and industrial purposes.
UPSC 2023Environment and Ecology · Climate Change
Q10. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change. Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Statement I is correct: Carbon markets are trading systems in which carbon credits are sold and bought. Companies or individuals can use carbon markets to compensate for their greenhouse gas emissions by purchasing carbon credits from entities that remove or reduce greenhouse gas emissions. One tradable carbon credit equals one tonne of carbon dioxide or the equivalent amount of a different greenhouse gas reduced, sequestered or avoided. Carbon markets, including compliance and voluntary markets, are widely recognized as effective tools for reducing greenhouse gas emissions. They incentivize emission reductions by allowing entities to trade carbon credits, making them a key mechanism in global climate action.
Statement II is correct: Carbon markets help reduce green-house gas emissions by assigning value to carbon and creating a market for trading carbon credits, which represent the right to emit a certain amount of greenhouse gases. They enable more efficient allocation of emission reduction efforts and facilitate the exchange of allowances between public and private entities, of-ten involving financial transactions. Carbon markets can generate revenue for governments through mechanisms like the sale of emission allowances in compliance markets. However, this is not their primary purpose, as carbon markets primarily facilitate trading between private entities to reduce emissions efficiently.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
1
2023
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
2
2023
(a) Only one
3
2023
(c) Honey Bees
4
2023
(c) All three
5
2023
(b) Orangutan
6
2023
(c) Both 1 and 2
7
2023
(c) Only three
8
2023
(b) Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution.
9
2023
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
10
2023
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Environment and Ecology?
This page covers 16 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Environment and Ecology in the UPSC 2023 Prelims, asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for Environment and Ecology?
Questions on Environment and Ecology in the UPSC 2023 Prelims are available for 22 years, from 1996 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.