This page lists 17 previous year UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination (General Studies Paper-I) questions on Geography in the UPSC 2023 Prelims. Choose an option to see the correct answer and the full explanation on the same page.
Explanations state facts as they stood in the year each question was asked, so words like “recently” or “currently” refer to that year, not today. For the present position, check the latest Current Affairs.
Showing 1–10 of 17 questions
UPSC 2023Geography · Climatology
Q1. With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?
Explanation
Option (a) is incorrect: Though it is accurate that the equator receives greater direct sunlight in comparison to the poles, the disparity in insolation is not as substantial as tenfold. The variance in insolation between the equator and poles predominantly arises from the curvature of the Earth and the inclination of its axis, causing sunlight to strike different latitudes at varying angles. Instead of a tenfold difference, the actual variation is estimated to be around 2.5 times.
Option (b) is incorrect: Insolation denotes the entirety of solar radiation reaching the Earth’s surface, encompassing a wide range of electromagnetic radiation. Although infrared radiation constitutes a substantial portion (about 49 %) of solar radiation, it does not represent two-thirds of the insolation. Insolation comprises visible light, ultraviolet (UV) radiation, and various other wavelengths along-side infrared radiation.
Option (c) is correct: The atmosphere warms up by absorbing longwave radiation emitted from the Earth’s surface, mainly in the form of infrared radiation. Water vapor is a strong absorber of infrared radiation. In the lower atmosphere, where its concentration is higher, it absorbs a significant portion of the Earth’s emitted infrared radiation.
Option (d) is incorrect: Infrared radiation is not part of the visible range, infrared radiation has wavelengths longer than those of visible light and is not perceptible to the human eye.
Exam tip:
For S1, 10 times sounds exaggerated. Yes, poles receive less, but not that drastically. Extreme figures (like "10 times") in UPSC are often red flags, hence likely false. For S2, If IR were 2/3 of insolation, the Sun wouldn’t look so bright -- it would be mostly invisible to us (since IR is not visible), hence likely false. For S4, Use basic science logic: Visible = what we can see IR is invisible. Hence likely false.
UPSC 2023Geography · Climatology
Q2. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients. Statement-II: The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Statement-I is incorrect: The tropical rainforest occurs near the equator and close to the tropics. Thus it receives heavy rainfall throughout the year. The heavy rain causes intense leaching of the soil which increases the acidity of the soil. Due to increased acidity, there is an issue of less nutrient absorption from the soil. Thus the claim that tropical rain forests are rich in nutrients is inappropriate.
Statement II is correct: As the tropical rainforest lies in a region of heavy rainfall and near to tropics, thus the climate here is hot and humid. This causes the rapid decomposition of the dead organic material present in the soil. Hence, Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
UPSC 2023Geography · Climatology
Q3. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter. Statement-II: The specific heat of water is more than that of the land surface. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Statement-I is incorrect: The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during winter than in summer. The reason for this is:
In summer, the land heats up faster than water due to its lower specific heat capacity. However, both the land and oceans are warm, so the temperature difference is relatively smaller. In winter, land cools down more rapidly than water because water has a higher specific heat capacity. This leads to a larger temperature contrast between the cooler land and relatively warmer oceans. Statement-II is correct: Specific heat is the amount of heat energy it takes to raise or lower the temperature of 1 gram of a substance by 1°Celsius. The specific heat of water is greater than that of dry soil, thus, water absorbs and releases heat more slowly than land.
Exam tip:
For S1, When evaluating temperature contrast between land and ocean, always assess which season allows for a larger numerical difference. Land can cool to below -20°C in winter, while the adjacent ocean remains near 10-20°C, resulting in a 30-40°C gap. In contrast, during summer, land may reach up to 45-50°C, but ocean surfaces typically warm only to around 30°C, limiting the contrast to 15-20°C. Hence S1 likely false.
UPSC 2023Geography · Geomorphology
Q4. Consider the following statements: 1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves. 2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation, whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: There are two types of body waves-P and S waves. The P-waves and S-waves are also known as primary waves and secondary waves, respectively. The P-waves move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface. Therefore, in a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves. The S-waves arrive at the surface with some time lag.
Statement 2 is correct: In P-waves, the media particle vibrates parallel to the direction of the wave. Thus it causes the to-and-fro motion. Further, in the S-waves media particles vibrate perpendicular (up and down at right angles) to the direction of wave propagation i.e. in the right angle. P-waves S-waves Arrival Times Surface Waves Amplitude
UPSC 2023Geography · Human and Economic Geography
Q5. With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements: 1. None of them uses seawater. 2. None of them are set up in water-stressed districts. 3. None of them is privately owned. How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Thermal power is the largest source of electricity in India, accounting for around 70% of the country’s total power generation. It primarily relies on coal, gas, and oil as fuel sources, with coal-based plants being the dominant contributors.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Water is essential in thermal power plants for cooling high temperatures and generating steam to power turbines. In India, river water is primarily used for this purpose, but some plants, like Mundra Thermal Power Station in Gujarat, use seawater.
Statement 2 is incorrect: More than a third of India’s freshwater-based plants are in areas with high or extreme water stress. On average, they run at 15-25 % lower capacity than those in less water-stressed regions because of limited water availability. Ex-Suratgarh Thermal Power Plant (Rajasthan)
Statement 3 is incorrect: Many coal-based power plants in In-dia are privately owned and operated. For example, the Mundra Thermal Power Plant in Gujarat is owned by Adani Power and is one of the largest private-sector coal-based power plants in the country.
Exam tip:
"None" Absolute Scope = High Risk of Being Wrong. When a statement says ""None"", it means no exceptions are allowed. So just one counterexample is enough to invalidate the statement. Hence all are likely false."
UPSC 2023Geography · Human and Economic Geography
Q6. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Statement-II: Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Statement I is correct: Switzerland consistently ranks as the world’s leading gold exporter by value. In 2023, the country exported gold worth over $107 billion which makes it the top exporter globally. The country is home to some of the world’s largest and most advanced gold refineries, processing a significant portion of the global gold supply. This infrastructure enables Switzerland to import large quantities of raw gold, refine it, and then export high-quality gold products worldwide.
Statement II is incorrect: Switzerland does not hold the second-largest gold reserves globally. As of the latest data, the top countries by gold reserves are: United States>Germany>Italy>France>Russia>China> Switzerland.
UPSC 2023Geography · Human and Economic Geography
Q7. With reference to India’s projects on connectivity, consider the following statements: 1. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat. 2.The Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar. 3. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China. How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The East-West Corridor is a part of India’s National Highways Development Project (NHDP) which is designed to improve connectivity between the eastern and western regions of the country. It connects Silchar in Assam to Porbandar in Gujarat, passing through states like West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan. The Golden Quadrilateral forms a quadrilateral connecting Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata. The East-West Corridor is not under the Golden Quadrilateral Project.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway is an initiative to enhance connectivity between the three countries. The highway connects Moreh in Manipur, India, to Mae Sot in Thailand, passing through Myanmar. The route includes key locations such as Tamu and Mandalay in Myanmar. Chiang Mai located further north in Thailand is not on this route.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar (BCIM) Economic Corridor is a proposed initiative aimed at enhancing economic integration and connectivity among the four countries. The corridor is intended to link Kolkata in West Bengal, India, to Kunming in Yunnan Province, China, traversing through Bangladesh and Myanmar. Varanasi is not part of this proposed route.
UPSC 2023Geography · Human and Economic Geography
Q8. About three-fourths of the world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by:
Explanation
Option (c) is correct: The Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) is the world’s largest producer of cobalt, accounting for approximately 70-75% of global production. Cobalt is a critical metal used in lithium-ion batteries for electric vehicles (EVs) and electronic devices. The DRC’s vast mineral-rich deposits in the Katanga region which makes it the dominant player in the global cobalt supply chain
Additional insight:
Argentina is known for its vast mineral resources like lithium, silver, copper, and gold. It is part of the "Lithium Triangle" (along with Chile and Bolivia) which makes it one of the world’s largest producers of lithium. It is a significant producer of silver, particularly from the Patagonia region. It has significant copper and gold mining operations in regions like San Juan and Mendoza. Botswana is globally known for its diamonds, copper, nickel, and coal. It is one of the world’s top diamond producers, with mines in Jwaneng and Orapa mines. It has significant copper and nickel reserves in the Selebi-Phikwe region. Kazakhstan is rich in uranium, coal, chromium, and zinc. It is the world’s largest producer of uranium, used primarily for nuclear power generation. It also holds a significant share of the world’s chromium production, essential for producing stainless steel.
UPSC 2023Geography · Human and Economic Geography
Q9. Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?
Explanation
Ilmenite(FeTiO) and rutile(TiO) are heavy minerals found abundantly in coastal sands, particularly in India’s Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala coasts. These minerals are the primary sources of titanium which are a valuable metal used in aerospace, defense, and industrial applications. They contain titanium dioxide, which is extracted and processed to produce titanium metal and its alloys.
Option (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect:
Aluminium is extracted from bauxite and not ilmenite or rutile. Copper is obtained from ores like chalcopyrite and not from coastal sands. Iron is found in hematite and magnetite ores
Exam tip:
Odd one out among these is Titanium. All other three are well known, widely used metals with famous mining sites. Had these three been found in coastal tracts it would have been well known, have you ever heard a iron ore or aluminium ore site near coast. No!
UPSC 2023Geography · Human and Economic Geography
Q10. Consider the following pairs:
Port
Well known as
1. Kamarajar Port
First major port in India registered as a company
2. Mundra Port
Largest privately owned port in India
3. Visakhapatnam
Largest container port in India
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Explanation
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Kamarajar Port is the 12th major port of India and the first in the country to operate as a public company. In 1999 it was declared a major port under the Indian Ports Act,1908. It was incorporated as Ennore Port Limited under the Companies Act, 1956 in October 1999. Kamarajar Port is the only corporatized major port in India, operating as a company. Today, the landlord port model, where the port authority leases the facilities to private operators, is the dominant approach in larger and medium-sized ports.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Mundra Port is situated along the northern coast of the Gulf of Kutch near Mundra in Gujarat. It is the largest privately owned port of India. It is owned and operated by Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Limited (APSEZ) and handles a significant portion of India’s cargo.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Jawaharlal Nehru Port (Nhava Sheva) is the largest container port in India. Visakhapatnam Port ranks as India’s third largest state-owned port in terms of cargo volume handled and holds the distinction of being the largest port on the Eastern Coast.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
1
2023
(c) Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere
2
2023
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
3
2023
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
4
2023
(c) Both 1 and 2
5
2023
(d) None
6
2023
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
7
2023
(d) None
8
2023
(c) The Democratic Republic of the Congo
9
2023
(d) Titanium
10
2023
(b) Only two pairs
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Geography?
This page covers 17 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Geography in the UPSC 2023 Prelims, asked between 1996 to 2024. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for Geography?
Questions on Geography in the UPSC 2023 Prelims are available for 29 years, from 1996 to 2024. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.