13 previous year UPSC Prelims questions on Indian Economy in the UPSC 2023 Prelims. Choose an option to see the answer and explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 1–10 of 13 questions
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UPSC 2023Indian Economy · Agriculture
Q1. Which one of the following best describes the concept of ‘Small Farmer Large Field’?
Explanation
The ‘Small Farmer Large Field’ (SFLF) concept is an innovative agricultural model designed to address the challenges faced by small and marginal farmers. In this approach numerous smallholder farmers in a specific region come together to form groups and collectively manage and synchronize their farming activities. By pooling their resources and coordinating operations--from seed selection to harvesting--they effectively transform their fragmented individual plots into a unified larger field. Key Features of the SFLF Model:
Collective Decision-Making: Farmers jointly select crop varieties and plan the cultivation process, ensuring uniformity and efficiency across the consolidated land. Synchronized Agricultural Operations: Activities such as planting, irrigation, pest management, and harvesting are carried out in a coordinated manner, optimizing resource use and reducing operational costs. Enhanced Bargaining Power: By operating as a collective, farmers gain better leverage when negotiating with suppliers for inputs like seeds and fertilizers, and when marketing their produce to buyers, leading to improved income and market access.
UPSC 2023Indian Economy · Agriculture
Q2. Consider the following statements: 1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds. 2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. 3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking. How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Indian government includes niger seeds in its Minimum Support Price (MSP) pro-gram for Kharif crops. The MSP for niger seeds was set at 7,734 per quintal for the 2023-24 season reflecting an increase from previous years.
Statement 2 is correct: Niger is primarily cultivated as a Kharif crop in India. It is sown during the monsoon season (June-July) and harvested in the post-monsoon period (September-October). It is grown mainly in states like Odisha, Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, and Madhya Pradesh.
Statement 3 is correct: Niger seed oil is traditionally used by various tribal communities in India for cooking purposes. The oil which is extracted from niger seeds is valued for its nutritional properties and forms an integral part of the diet in several tribal regions.
UPSC 2023Indian Economy · Industry
Q3. Consider the investments in the following assets: 1. Brand recognition 2. Inventory 3. Intellectual property 4. Mailing list of clients How many of the above are considered intangible investments?
Explanation
Investments can be categorized into tangible and intangible assets. Tangible assets have a physical presence, while intangible assets lack a physical form. Intangible assets derive their value from intellectual or legal rights.
Option (c) is correct:
Brand recognition is an intangible asset because it does not have a physical form but contributes significantly to a company’s value. Strong brand recognition enhances consumer trust, customer loyalty, and market competitiveness. Example: Coca-Cola’s brand value is estimated at billions of dollars, despite not being a physical asset. Intellectual property (patents, trademarks, copyrights, trade secrets) is intangible and provides significant competitive advantage. Example: Patents for pharmaceutical drugs are valuable intangible investments for pharma companies. Mailing List of Clients is an intangible asset because it enhances marketing capabilities and customer retention. Example: E-commerce companies leverage customer mailing lists for targeted marketing. Inventory consists of physical goods that a company holds for sale or production. It is a tangible asset because it has a physical form and can be seen, touched, and measured. Example: A company like Reliance Retail holds inventory in the form of clothes, electronics, and groceries, which are physical goods. The Companies Act, 2013 and accounting standards (Ind AS) classify inventory as a tangible asset.
UPSC 2023Indian Economy · Industry
Q4. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods. Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Statement I is incorrect: As of 2022 India’s share in global merchandise exports was approximately 1.8% and not 3.2%. This figure has seen a modest increase from 1.69% in 2014 to 1.82% in 2022.
Statement II is correct: The Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme was introduced by the Indian government in 2020 to boost domestic manufacturing across various sectors. Both local and foreign companies have actively participated in this initiative including major global players like Dell, HP, Foxconn, Lenovo, etc.
UPSC 2023Indian Economy · Industry
Q5. Consider the following statements with reference to India: 1. According to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between 15 crore and 25 crore. 2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The MSMED Act, 2006 originally defined medium enterprises as those with investments in plant and machinery between 5 crore and 10 crore. As per the latest guidelines of 2020 a medium enterprise presently is defined as one where the investment in plant and machinery or equipment does not exceed 50 crore and turnover does not exceed 250 crore and not 15 crore to 25 crore. The following table provides the details of revised limits:
Category Old Capital Old Turnover New Capital New Turn-over Micro 25 Lakh 10 Lakh 1 Crore 5 Crore Small 5 Crore 2 Crore 10 Crore 50 Crore Medium 10 Crore 5 Crore 50 Crore 250 Crore
Statement 2 is correct: The Reserve Bank of India’s Master Directions on Priority Sector Lending (PSL) specify that bank loans to Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises are eligible for classification under the priority sector but subject to certain conditions. While loans to micro and small enterprises are fully eligible, loans to medium enterprises are considered under PSL only up to a certain limit. Specifically, bank loans up to 10 crore per borrower to medium enterprises engaged in providing or rendering of services are eligible for PSL classification.
UPSC 2023Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q6. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes. Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Statement I is correct: In the post-pandemic period, many central banks worldwide carried out interest rate hikes. This was primarily in response to rising inflation caused by supply chain disruptions, increased demand post-pandemic, and geopolitical tensions (such as the Russia-Ukraine conflict). For example:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) raised the repo rate multiple times in 2022 and 2023 to combat inflation. The repo rate was increased from a historic low of 4% during the pandemic to 6.5% by early 2023. Similarly, the US Federal Reserve and the European Central Bank also raised interest rates aggressively to curb inflation.
Statement II is correct: Central banks such as RBI assume that they can counteract rising consumer prices (inflation) through monetary policy tools such as increasing interest rates. Higher interest rates reduce borrowing and spending, which in turn helps to cool down demand and control inflation. This is a well-established principle of monetary policy. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I: The inter-est rate hikes mentioned in Statement-I were explicitly carried out to counteract rising consumer prices (inflation), as stated in Statement-II.
UPSC 2023Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q7. Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of ‘sterilization’?
Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) employs Open Market Operations (OMOs) as a primary tool for sterilization. OMOs involve the buying and selling of government securities in the open market. When the RBI sells government securities, it absorbs liquidity from the banking system, effectively neutralizing the increase in money supply resulting from its foreign exchange interventions. This process helps in maintaining monetary stability and controlling inflation.
UPSC 2023Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q8. With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements: 1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using the US dollar or SWIFT system. 2. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time- frame for spending it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Central Bank Digital Currencies (CBDCs) are digital forms of a country’s fiat currency which are issued and regulated by the central bank.
Statement 1 is correct: Central Bank Digital Currencies (CB-DCs) can operate independently unlike traditional cross-bor-der payments that rely on the US dollar as a reserve currency and the SWIFT (Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication) system for messaging. It can facilitate direct peer-to-peer (P2P) transactions or cross-border payments without intermediaries like SWIFT. Countries like China (with its digital yuan) and India (exploring the digital rupee) are developing CBDCs to reduce dependence on the US dollar and SWIFT for international transactions. The m-CBDC Bridge project which involves countries like China, Hong Kong, Thailand, and the UAE, is an example of how CB-DCs can enable cross-border payments without relying on the US dollar or SWIFT.
Statement 2 is correct: One of the key features of CBDCs is their programmability. Central banks can embed specific conditions into the digital currency using smart contracts or similar technologies. For instance: A government could issue a digital currency for welfare payments with an expiration date to ensure timely spending and boost economic activity. A CBDC could be programmed to be used only for specific purposes, such as healthcare or education.
UPSC 2023Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q9. Consider the following statements: 1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived. 2. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes. 3. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The SHG movement in In-dia was not initiated by the State Bank of India. The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) played a pivotal role in promoting and scaling up SHGs by providing financial support, capacity-building initiatives, and policy frameworks. In 1992, NABARD launched the SHG-Bank Linkage Programme which facilitated the integration of SHGs into the formal banking system.
Statement 2 is correct: All members of a Self-Help Group (SHG) share responsibility for any loans taken by individual members. This system fosters mutual support and peer account-ability thereby encouraging timely repayments and financial discipline. Generally banks extend loans to the SHG as a single entity, which then distributes funds among its members. In the event of a default, the group collectively ensures repayment, safeguarding its overall creditworthiness.
Statement 3 is correct: Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) play a crucial role in supporting Self-Help Groups (SHGs). As part of the SHG-Bank Linkage Programme launched by NABARD in 1992, these banks extend financial services, including credit, savings, and insurance, to SHGs. This initiative has significantly improved financial inclusion, enabling marginalized communities, particularly rural women, to access formal banking services, build credit histories, and enhance their economic stability.
Exam tip:
S1 aligns with Function-person/organisation/ministry match trap as it’s easy to manipulate to make it false. Is it SBI or NABARD or RBI? Also, S2 and S3 are too general and positive to be false.
UPSC 2023Indian Economy · Security Market in India
Q10. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable. Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002". Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Statement I is incorrect: Both interest and dividend income received from InvITs are taxable in the hands of investors. Interest income is treated as "income from other sources" under the Income Tax Act, 1961, and is subject to tax as per the applicable income tax slab rates. Dividends are taxable in the hands of investors, and the InvITs are required to deduct Tax Deducted at Source (TDS) before distributing dividends as of the current tax regime (post-2020).
Statement II is correct: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002(SARFAESI Act). This recognition allows InvITs to raise funds by issuing debt securities and provides a legal framework for lenders to enforce security interests in case of default. The SARFAESI Act is a critical legislation for the financial sector, enabling banks and financial institutions to recover non-performing assets (NPAs) efficiently.
Additional insight:
The tax treatment of InvITs is governed by the Income Tax Act, 1961 and the SEBI (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014. The inclusion of InvITs as borrowers under the SARFAESI Act was a significant step to enhance the credibility and flexibility of InvITs as a financing vehicle for infrastructure projects.
Exam tip:
What is the logic for exempting InvITs from taxes? None!, hence likely false.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
1
2023
(b) Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations
2
2023
(c) All three
3
2023
(c) Only three
4
2023
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
5
2023
(b) 2 only
6
2023
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
7
2023
(a) Conducting ‘Open Market Operations’
8
2023
(c) Both 1 and 2
9
2023
(b) Only two
10
2023
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Indian Economy?
This page covers 13 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Indian Economy in the UPSC 2023 Prelims, asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for Indian Economy?
Questions on Indian Economy in the UPSC 2023 Prelims are available for 30 years, from 1996 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.