UPSC 2023 Prelims Questions with Answers

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The 44th Chess Olympiad is being held in Chennai from July 28 to August 9, 2022. The prestigious competition, organised since 1927, is being hosted in India for the first time and in Asia after 30 years.

Statement 2 is correct: The 44th Chess Olympiad has unveiled the official logo and mascot for the event. The Mascot is a chess knight called Thambi.

Statement 3 is incorrect:: Vera Menchik Cup is for 1st place in the Women’s section.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Hamilton-Russell Cup is given to the winning team in the open section.

Explanation

The Janani Suraksha Yojana, a centrally sponsored scheme, was introduced in April 2005 by modifying the National Maternity Benefit Scheme (NMBS), which itself was established in August 1995 as a component within the National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP). Under the scheme, qualifying pregnant women are eligible to receive cash assistance regardless of the mother’s age or the number of children she has, as long as she gives birth in a government or accredited private health facility. The scheme is currently being executed across all states and Union Territories (UTs), with particular emphasis placed on Low Performing States (LPS).

Statement 1 is incorrect: Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a safe motherhood intervention under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM). It is not an initiative of State Health Departments.

Statement 2 is correct: The objective of the Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.

Statement 3 is correct: The Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) encourages pregnant women, particularly those with disadvantaged socio- economic backgrounds such as Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and households below the poverty line (BPL), to opt for institutional delivery.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The JSY is only related to the safe motherhood intervention. Providing public health facilities to sick infants upto one year of age is the objective of Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: ‘Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award’ the highest sporting honour in India, is presented annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India. It is given for the spectacular and most outstanding performance in the field of sports by a sportsperson over a period of the previous four years.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Arjuna Awards holds the distinction of being India’s second- highest sporting recognition. Recipients are chosen by a committee appointed by the Ministry based on their commendable performance over a span of four years, coupled with demonstrated qualities of leadership, sportsmanship, and discipline.

Statement 3 is correct: The Dronacharya Award represents a prestigious coaching accolade within the Republic of India. Recipients are carefully chosen by a committee appointed by the Ministry of Youth and Sports Affairs, who have helped athletes achieve excellence over a period of four years.

Statement 4 is incorrect: ‘Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Purus-kar’ is given to corporate entities (both in the private and public sector), sports control boards, and NGOs, including sports bodies at the State and National level who have played a visible role in the area of sports promotion and development. ‘Dhyan Chand Award for Lifetime Achievement in Sports and Games’ is given to honour sportspersons who have contributed to sports by their performance and continue to contribute to the promotion of sports events after their retirement.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy, the key intervention is to provide prophylactic iron and folic acid supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women.

Statement 2 is correct: The Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping (by at least 3 minutes or until cord pulsations cease) at the time of childbirth.

Statement 3 is correct: The Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy provides a bi-annual mass deworming for children and adolescents in the age group between 1-19 years and of women of reproductive age and pregnant women as part of the National Deworming Day programme.

Statement 4 is correct: The strategy attempts to intensify awareness and integrate screening and treatment for following non-nutritional causes of anaemia with a special focus on malaria, haemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.

Explanation

Statement I is correct: In the post-pandemic period, many central banks worldwide carried out interest rate hikes. This was primarily in response to rising inflation caused by supply chain disruptions, increased demand post-pandemic, and geopolitical tensions (such as the Russia-Ukraine conflict). For example:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) raised the repo rate multiple times in 2022 and 2023 to combat inflation. The repo rate was increased from a historic low of 4% during the pandemic to 6.5% by early 2023. Similarly, the US Federal Reserve and the European Central Bank also raised interest rates aggressively to curb inflation.

Statement II is correct: Central banks such as RBI assume that they can counteract rising consumer prices (inflation) through monetary policy tools such as increasing interest rates. Higher interest rates reduce borrowing and spending, which in turn helps to cool down demand and control inflation. This is a well-established principle of monetary policy. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I: The inter-est rate hikes mentioned in Statement-I were explicitly carried out to counteract rising consumer prices (inflation), as stated in Statement-II.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) employs Open Market Operations (OMOs) as a primary tool for sterilization. OMOs involve the buying and selling of government securities in the open market. When the RBI sells government securities, it absorbs liquidity from the banking system, effectively neutralizing the increase in money supply resulting from its foreign exchange interventions. This process helps in maintaining monetary stability and controlling inflation.

Explanation

Central Bank Digital Currencies (CBDCs) are digital forms of a country’s fiat currency which are issued and regulated by the central bank.

Statement 1 is correct: Central Bank Digital Currencies (CB-DCs) can operate independently unlike traditional cross-bor-der payments that rely on the US dollar as a reserve currency and the SWIFT (Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication) system for messaging. It can facilitate direct peer-to-peer (P2P) transactions or cross-border payments without intermediaries like SWIFT. Countries like China (with its digital yuan) and India (exploring the digital rupee) are developing CBDCs to reduce dependence on the US dollar and SWIFT for international transactions. The m-CBDC Bridge project which involves countries like China, Hong Kong, Thailand, and the UAE, is an example of how CB-DCs can enable cross-border payments without relying on the US dollar or SWIFT.

Statement 2 is correct: One of the key features of CBDCs is their programmability. Central banks can embed specific conditions into the digital currency using smart contracts or similar technologies. For instance: A government could issue a digital currency for welfare payments with an expiration date to ensure timely spending and boost economic activity. A CBDC could be programmed to be used only for specific purposes, such as healthcare or education.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The SHG movement in In-dia was not initiated by the State Bank of India. The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) played a pivotal role in promoting and scaling up SHGs by providing financial support, capacity-building initiatives, and policy frameworks. In 1992, NABARD launched the SHG-Bank Linkage Programme which facilitated the integration of SHGs into the formal banking system.

Statement 2 is correct: All members of a Self-Help Group (SHG) share responsibility for any loans taken by individual members. This system fosters mutual support and peer account-ability thereby encouraging timely repayments and financial discipline. Generally banks extend loans to the SHG as a single entity, which then distributes funds among its members. In the event of a default, the group collectively ensures repayment, safeguarding its overall creditworthiness.

Statement 3 is correct: Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) play a crucial role in supporting Self-Help Groups (SHGs). As part of the SHG-Bank Linkage Programme launched by NABARD in 1992, these banks extend financial services, including credit, savings, and insurance, to SHGs. This initiative has significantly improved financial inclusion, enabling marginalized communities, particularly rural women, to access formal banking services, build credit histories, and enhance their economic stability.

Explanation

Green hydrogen is expected to play a prominent role in decarbonising heavy industries, including oil refineries, steel mills and fertiliser plants. Green hydrogen is produced by breaking down water in an electrolyser using only renewable energy, resulting in no carbon emissions. The production of fertiliser demands substantial energy, typically sourced from fossil fuels like natural gas. However, green hydrogen offers a promising alternative, serving either as an electricity source or directly utilised in the ammonia production process, which is crucial for manufacturing fertilizer. Oil refineries significantly contribute to greenhouse gas emissions through their energy-intensive operations and dependence on fossil fuels. However, integrating green hydrogen into refinery operations offers a viable solution to mitigate this impact by either substituting or complementing fossil fuels, thereby decreasing their carbon footprint. Hydrogen can play a vital role in refining procedures like hydrocracking and hydrotreating, enhancing fuel quality by eliminating impurities. The steel industry contributes substantially to worldwide carbon emissions. However, the adoption of green hydrogen presents an opportunity to address this issue by serving as a replacement for coal or coke as a reducing agent in the steelmaking process. Green hydrogen enables the Direct Reduced Iron (DRI) process, producing environmental -friendly or low-carbon steel. It can also support heat and electricity generation, further cutting emissions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Finely ground basalt rock is dispersed across agricultural lands to expedite the natural absorption of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. This is known as enhanced rock weathering, where silicate minerals react with CO₂, forming stable carbonates and reducing atmospheric carbon, as well as improving the fertility of the soil.

Statement 2 is correct: This method, referred to as ocean alkalinity enhancement, encompasses the addition of lime (calcium oxide or calcium hydroxide) to the oceans to elevate their alkalinity. By doing so, it boosts the oceans’ ability to absorb and retain carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, thus assisting in carbon sequestration.

Statement 3 is correct: The process known as carbon capture and storage (CCS) involves capturing carbon dioxide emissions from industrial processes and storing them underground. Abandoned subterranean mines can be utilised as viable storage sites, where the captured carbon dioxide is injected into these locations as carbonated waters.