This page lists 100 previous year UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination (General Studies Paper-I) questions on the UPSC 2023 Prelims. Choose an option to see the correct answer and the full explanation on the same page.
Explanations state facts as they stood in the year each question was asked, so words like “recently” or “currently” refer to that year, not today. For the present position, check the latest Current Affairs.
Showing 21–30 of 100 questions
UPSC 2023Geography · Climatology
Q21. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter. Statement-II: The specific heat of water is more than that of the land surface. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Statement-I is incorrect: The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during winter than in summer. The reason for this is:
In summer, the land heats up faster than water due to its lower specific heat capacity. However, both the land and oceans are warm, so the temperature difference is relatively smaller. In winter, land cools down more rapidly than water because water has a higher specific heat capacity. This leads to a larger temperature contrast between the cooler land and relatively warmer oceans. Statement-II is correct: Specific heat is the amount of heat energy it takes to raise or lower the temperature of 1 gram of a substance by 1°Celsius. The specific heat of water is greater than that of dry soil, thus, water absorbs and releases heat more slowly than land.
Exam tip:
For S1, When evaluating temperature contrast between land and ocean, always assess which season allows for a larger numerical difference. Land can cool to below -20°C in winter, while the adjacent ocean remains near 10-20°C, resulting in a 30-40°C gap. In contrast, during summer, land may reach up to 45-50°C, but ocean surfaces typically warm only to around 30°C, limiting the contrast to 15-20°C. Hence S1 likely false.
UPSC 2023Environment and Ecology · Biodiversity
Q22. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India. Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Marsupials are a group of mammals commonly referred to as pouched mammals, such as kangaroos and wallabies. These animals are characterized by giving birth to underdeveloped young, which then continue their development in the mother’s pouch (marsupium). They give live birth, but they do not have long gestation times like placental mammals. The pouch provides protection and access to nourishment during this critical growth stage. Statement-I is correct: Marsupials can be observed in regions spanning Australia, Papua New Guinea, and South America. They are not naturally found in India. Examples of marsupials include kangaroos, wallabies, wombats, opossums, bandicoots, and koalas. Statement-II is incorrect: These creatures predominantly inhabit arid and semi-arid areas, and they are not restricted solely to montane grasslands. Marsupials are highly adaptable and thrive in a variety of habitats, including forests, deserts, grasslands. Additionally, they coexist with predators like dingoes, eagles, and foxes in their natural environments.
Exam tip:
"ONLY’ is strong phrase. Also, again use observed logic:
Kangaroos are marsupials, found in Australia, is Australia montane grassland? No!, hence S2 is likely false.
UPSC 2023Environment and Ecology · Biodiversity
Q23. Consider the following fauna: 1. Lion-tailed Macaque 2. Malabar Civet 3. Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?
Explanation
Option 1 is incorrect: Lion-tailed Macaque, also referred to as the wanderoo, inhabits the upper canopy of tropical evergreen rainforests and monsoon forests across various elevations. This species is endemic to the Western Ghats. They are diurnal which means it is active during the day and not nocturnal. IUCN Red List: Endangered Option 2 is correct: Malabar Civet is endemic to the Western Ghats of India. It is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List. The Malabar civet is considered nocturnal and so elusive that little is known about its biology and ecology apart from habitat use. IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered Option 3 is incorrect: The Sambar, a large deer native to the Indian subcontinent and Southeast Asia, is crepuscular, active during twilight (morning and evening), and occasionally after sunset. Males are mostly solitary while females form small herds of up to 16 individuals. IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
UPSC 2023Medieval History · Regional Kingdoms
Q24. Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to the Portuguese?
Explanation
Qutb-ud-Din Bahadur Shah, originally named Bahadur Khan, was a ruler of the Muzaffarid dynasty who governed the Gujarat Sultanate from 1526 to 1535 and again from 1536 to 1537. In 1532, the Mughal Emperor Humayun invaded Gujarat, leading to its temporary fall. Bahadur Shah managed to regain control in 1536, but he was later killed by the Portuguese aboard a ship while negotiating with them. Conclusively, Bahadur Shah of Gujarat was the ruler who surrendered Diu to the Portuguese.
Option (a) is incorrect: Ahmad Shah Bahadur, also known as Mirza Ahmad Shah or Mujahid-ud-Din Ahmad Shah Ghazi (1725-1775), was the fourteenth Mughal emperor and the son of Emperor Muhammad Shah.
Option (b) is incorrect: Mahmud Begada (Mahmud Shah I) (1459-1511 CE) was a Sultan of Gujarat known for capturing Pavagadh and Junagadh forts, earning him the title "Begada." He later established Champaner as the capital.
Option (d) is incorrect: Mirza Nasir-ud-Din Muhammad Shah was the thirteenth Mughal emperor (1719-1748). He was a patron of arts, culture, and administration, often referred to as Muhammad Shah Rangila for his artistic inclinations.
UPSC 2023Environment and Ecology · Biodiversity
Q25. Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?
Explanation
The waggle dance is a unique form of communication performed by honey bees (Apis mellifera) to convey information about the direction and distance of food sources, water, or potential nesting sites to other members of their hive. Worker honeybees, all of which are females, constitute the only bees typically observed flying outside the hive by the general populace. Bees perform two distinct types of dances: The Round Dance and the Tail-wagging or Waggle Dance. The waggle dance of honeybees has long been recognized as a behaviour that communicates in-formation about resource location from a foraging worker to her nest mates.
UPSC 2023Medieval History · Regional Kingdoms
Q26. Consider the following dynasties: 1. Hoysala 2. Gahadavala 3. Kakatiya 4. Yadava How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in the early eighth century AD?
Explanation
Hoysala Dynasty: Originating from the Indian subcontinent, the Hoysala Empire held sway over a significant portion of present-day Karnataka from the 11th to the 14th centuries. While the Hoysalas initially established their capital at Belur, it was later relocated to Halebidu. Gahadavala Dynasty: Following the dissolution of the Pratihara empire, several Rajput states emerged in northern India. Among these, the Gahadavalas of Kanauj (12th to 13th century), the Paramaras of Malwa, and the Chauhans of Ajmer were the most prominent. Kakatiya Dynasty: The Kakatiya dynasty ruled the region comprising present day Telangana and Andhra Pradesh during the 12th and 14th centuries. Their capital was Warangal in Telangana. The distinct style of Kakatiya-era architecture is seen in the Thousand Pillar Temple and Ramappa Temple near Warangal. Yadava Dynasty: The Yadava dynasty ruled in the 12th-14th-century and comprised the Hindu kingdom of central India in what is now the Indian state of Maharashtra. Originally a feudatory of the Eastern Chalukyas of Kalyani, the dynasty became paramount in the Deccan under Bhillama (c. 1187-91), who founded Devagiri (later Daulatabad) as his capital.
UPSC 2023Environment and Ecology · Biodiversity
Q27. Consider the following statements: 1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water. 2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water. 3. Some microorganisms can grow in a highly acidic environment with a pH below 3. How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Microorganisms are classified into three primary groups on the basis of their preferred range of temperature:
Statement 1 is correct: Hyperthermophiles such as Pyrobolus and Pyrodictium can grow at temperatures exceeding 100°C especially in high-pressure environments like deep-sea hydrothermal vents.
Statement 2 is correct: Psychrophiles such as Colwellia psy-chrerythraea and Pseudomonas syringae can grow at temperatures as low as -10°C and remain metabolically active even at -20°C in environments like Arctic permafrost, deep-sea polar waters, and glacial ice. These microbes produce cryoprotectants such as antifreeze proteins to prevent ice crystal formation in-side their cells.
Statement 3 is correct: Acidophiles such as Ferroplasma acidar-manus and Acidithiobacillus ferrooxidans thrive in environments with pH as low as 0.5, such as acidic hot springs, acid mine drain-ages, and volcanic sulfur pools. These microbes have evolved mechanisms to pump out excess protons (H ions) to maintain internal pH stability. Some acidophiles like Thermoplasma lack a cell wall but possess specialized membrane structures to withstand extreme acidity.
Exam tip:
"Some" = possibility logic, not absolute. If even one species of organism does something, the statement is likely correct. UPSC uses "some" to lower the burden of proof harder to eliminate. Hence all statements are likely correct.
UPSC 2023Environment and Ecology · Biodiversity
Q28. Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?
Explanation
Orangutans are highly intelligent great apes known for their tool-using abilities. They have been observed breaking off small branches and using them as tools to scrape insects from holes in trees or logs. This behavior demonstrates their advanced cognitive skills, problem-solving abilities, and adaptability in foraging. None of the other listed animals.
UPSC 2023Environment and Ecology · Biodiversity
Q29. Consider the following statements: 1. In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realisation of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. 2. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: In India, Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) are established at the local level under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) and State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) work with BMCs to regulate access to biological resources and traditional knowledge, ensuring compliance with the Nagoya Protocol.
Statement 2 is correct: Biological Diversity Act, 2002 empowers BMCs to determine Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) mechanisms for biological resources found within their jurisdiction. They can levy collection fees on any person or entity accessing biological resources for commercial use.
UPSC 2023Art and Culture · Culture in India
Q30. Consider the following pairs:
Site
Well known for
1. Besnagar
Shaivite cave shrine
2. Bhaja
Buddhist cave shrine
3. Sittanavasal
Jain cave shrine
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Explanation
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Besnagar (located in Madhya Pradesh) is not known for being a Shaivite Cave Shrine. It is known for Garuda Pillar dedicated to lord Vasudeva by Heliodorus, an envoy of an Indo-Greek ruler Antialkidas in the court of Bhagabhadra. Heliodorus followed Vaishnava Sect.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Bhaja (located in Maharashtra) is renowned for its Buddhist cave complex dating back to the 2nd century BCE. The 22 cave complex is part of the early phase of Buddhist rock-cut architecture and include a chaitya (prayer hall) and viharas (monastic cells).
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Sittanavasal (located in Tamil Nadu) is famous for its Jain cave complex which dates back to the 2nd century BCE. The site includes a rock-cut cave temple with beautiful frescoes depicting Jain themes such as the Samavasarana (divine preaching hall).
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
21
2023
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
22
2023
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
23
2023
(a) Only one
24
2023
(c) Bahadur Shah
25
2023
(c) Honey Bees
26
2023
(d) None
27
2023
(c) All three
28
2023
(b) Orangutan
29
2023
(c) Both 1 and 2
30
2023
(b) Only two
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 100 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on the UPSC 2023 Prelims, asked between 1995 to 2024. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for all subjects?
Questions on the UPSC 2023 Prelims are available for 30 years, from 1995 to 2024. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.