This page lists 47 previous year UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination (General Studies Paper-I) questions on the UPSC 2023 Prelims. Choose an option to see the correct answer and the full explanation on the same page.
Showing 1–10 of 47 questions
UPSC 2023Art and Culture · Indian Architecture
Q1. With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements: 1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin. 2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics. 3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The concept of stupa originates from pre-Buddhist burial mounds in India which were used for funerary purposes such as burial mounds called ’Megalithic cairns’. Buddhism adopted and transformed these existing structures into significant religious monuments. While the architectural form of the Stupa was adapted and refined by Buddhists, its origins are not exclusively Buddhist.
Statement 2 is correct: Stupas were primarily built to serve as repositories of sacred relics. These relics could include the ashes or bodily remains of the Buddha, his disciples, or other revered figures. Example: the Dhamek Stupa at Sarnath (Uttar Pradesh) is believed to mark the spot where the Buddha delivered his first sermon. The relics were placed in a small chamber called the ’harmika’ at the center of the stupa, making it a focal point for veneration and pilgrimage.
Statement 3 is correct: Stupas serve both votive and commemorative functions often constructed as acts of reverence and offerings to the Buddha or other enlightened figures. They are built to honor important events, individuals, or historical locations. Stupas also function as centers of devotion, meditation, and pilgrimage. For example, the Dhamek Stupa at Sarnath commemorates the Buddha’s first sermon.
UPSC 2023Polity · Historical Background
Q2. By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?
Explanation
The Charter Act of 1833 marked the final step towards the centralization of British power in India. It elevated the Governor-General of Bengal to the position of Governor-General of India, granting him full civil and military authority over the entire British-ruled territory in India, with Lord William Bentinck becoming the first Governor-General of India.
Additional insight:
The Act also stripped the Governors of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. Under this Act, laws were referred to as "Acts" instead of "Regulations," as was the case under previous acts. Additionally, it ended the East India Company’s role as a commercial entity, transforming it into a purely administrative body.
UPSC 2023Ancient History · Construction of Ancient History
Q3. In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located
Explanation
Amaravati in Andhra Pradesh holds historical significance as the site of ancient Dhanyakataka, a prominent town in the Deccan region of the later Satavahanas, as recorded in numerous inscriptions. This area also housed a significant Buddhist settlement. According to some Tibetan scriptures Dhanyakataka is the place where early Kalachakra tradition took off. Kalachakra is a Buddhist tantric practice. It was a significant hub of Mahayana Buddhism and was associated with the Mahasanghika sect. The famous Amaravati Stupa, one of the largest Buddhist stupas in India, is located near this site. Options (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect:
Gandhara (Pakistan-Afghanistan region) was a center of Gandhara art and Mahayana Buddhism. Kalinga (Odisha) was significant for Ashoka’s Buddhist transformation but not specifically for the Mahasanghikas. Magadha (Bihar) was the heartland of early Buddhism but not linked to Dhanyakataka.
Additional insight:
Major ancient Buddhist Sites:
UPSC 2023Ancient History · Construction of Ancient History
Q4. With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well-known as:
Explanation
Korkai, Poompuhar, and Muchiri were prominent ancient port cities in South India that played a crucial role in maritime trade. Korkai: Korkai, situated in the Thoothukudi district of Tamil Nadu, emerged as a significant port city during ancient times, notably flourishing during the era of Tamil Sangam literature. It served as the primary port for the Pandya Kingdom during this period. Poompuhar: Alternatively known as Kaveripattinam, it stands out as an ancient port city with a vibrant maritime trading legacy. Positioned on the banks of the Kaveri River in the Mayiladuthurai district of Tamil Nadu, it served as the primary port for the esteemed Chola Kingdom. Muchiri: Muchiri, alternatively referred to as Muziris, stood as an ancient port city situated in what is now Kerala, close to the town of Kodungallur. It held substantial importance as a trading hub within the Indian Ocean trade network throughout the ancient and medieval eras. Tondi and Muchiri emerged as pivotal ports within the realm of the Chera kingdom. Hence, all the three sites mentioned were well known as Ports in ancient South India.
UPSC 2023Ancient History · Construction of Ancient History
Q5. Which one of the following explains the practice of ‘Vattakirutal’ as mentioned in Sangam poems?
Explanation
Vatakkiruttal, also known as Vadakiruthal or Vadakiruttal, was particularly prevalent during the Sangam period (3rd century BCE to 2nd Century CE). Tamil Kings, in a bid to uphold their honor and prestige, were willing to face death by fasting, a practice known as "Vatakkiruttal."
UPSC 2023Polity · Basic Concepts
Q6. In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean?
Explanation
In modern times, The Doctrine of ‘Due Process of Law’ has its origins in the USA Constitution. The due process of law doctrine not only examines whether a law exists to deprive a person of life or liberty but also assesses its fairness, justice, and non-arbitrariness. Unlike "Procedure established by law," where the judiciary focuses only on the legality and competence of the legislation, the Supreme Court, in the case of due process, also evaluates the law’s rationale and reasonableness. While "Due Process" primarily concerns legal procedures, it also emphasizes fairness and justice in law enforcement, aligning with the principles of natural justice, such as the right to a fair hearing, the right to be heard, and the right to an impartial tribunal.
Exam tip:
It would be illogical to say due process is same as pro-cedure established by law, even plain reading of both can prove both are different, hence eliminate option B. "Equality before law" (Article 14) is not even the same article as due process (A. 21), Hence Clearly false. Now, "Natural justice" = fairness + impartiality + right to be heard + no bias, is much more comprehensive and wider than mere "fair application " hence more probable to be true.
UPSC 2023Polity · Basic Concepts
Q7. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country?
Explanation
The Constitution of India is a foundational document outlining the basic laws, principles, and structure of the state, guiding all government actions. It serves as a legal, political, and social instrument, acting as the supreme law under which all regulations and institutions function. The Constitution defines citizens’ rights, ensuring they are protected from infringement by the state. Politically, it establishes, distributes, and limits government power, while socially, it reflects shared values and a civic vision for the state.
UPSC 2023Geography · Climatology
Q8. With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?
Explanation
Option (a) is incorrect: Though it is accurate that the equator receives greater direct sunlight in comparison to the poles, the disparity in insolation is not as substantial as tenfold. The variance in insolation between the equator and poles predominantly arises from the curvature of the Earth and the in-clination of its axis, causing sunlight to strike different latitudes at varying angles. Instead of a tenfold difference, the actual variation is estimated to be around 2.5 times.
Option (b) is incorrect: Insolation denotes the entirety of so-lar radiation reaching the Earth’s surface, encompassing a wide range of electromagnetic radiation. Although infrared radiation constitutes a substantial portion (about 49 %) of solar radiation, it does not represent two-thirds of the insolation. Insolation comprises visible light, ultraviolet (UV) radiation, and various other wavelengths along-side infrared radiation.
Option (c) is correct: The atmosphere warms up by absorbing longwave radiation emitted from the Earth’s surface, mainly in the form of infrared radiation. Water vapor is a strong absorber of infrared radiation. In the lower atmosphere, where its concentration is higher, it absorbs a significant portion of the Earth’s emitted infrared radiation.
Option (d) is incorrect: Infrared radiation is not part of the visible range, infrared radiation has wavelengths longer than those of visible light and is not perceptible to the human eye.
Exam tip:
For S1, 10 times sounds exaggerated. Yes, poles receive less, but not that drastically. Extreme figures (like "10 times") in UPSC are often red flags, hence likely false. For S2, If IR were 2/3 of insolation, the Sun wouldn’t look so bright -- it would be mostly invisible to us (since IR is not visible), hence likely false. For S4, Use basic science logic: Visible = what we can see IR is invisible. Hence likely false.
UPSC 2023Geography · Climatology
Q9. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients. Statement-II: The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Statement-I is incorrect: The tropical rainforest occurs near the equator and close to the tropics. Thus it receives heavy rainfall throughout the year. The heavy rain causes intense leaching of the soil which increases the acidity of the soil. Due to increased acidity, there is an issue of less nutrient absorption from the soil. Thus the claim that tropical rain forests are rich in nutrients is inappropriate.
Statement II is correct: As the tropical rainforest lies in a region of heavy rainfall and near to tropics, thus the climate here is hot and humid. This causes the rapid decomposition of the dead organic material present in the soil. Hence, Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
UPSC 2023Geography · Climatology
Q10. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter. Statement-II: The specific heat of water is more than that of the land surface. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Statement-I is incorrect: The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during winter than in summer. The reason for this is:
In summer, the land heats up faster than water due to its lower specific heat capacity. However, both the land and oceans are warm, so the temperature difference is relatively smaller. In winter, land cools down more rapidly than water because water has a higher specific heat capacity. This leads to a larger temperature contrast between the cooler land and relatively warmer oceans. Statement-II is correct: Specific heat is the amount of heat energy it takes to raise or lower the temperature of 1 gram of a sub-stance by 1°Celsius. The specific heat of water is greater than that of dry soil, thus, water absorbs and releases heat more slowly than land.
Exam tip:
For S1, When evaluating temperature contrast between land and ocean, always assess which season allows for a larger numerical difference. Land can cool to below -20°C in winter, while the adjacent ocean remains near 10-20°C, resulting in a 30-40°C gap. In contrast, during summer, land may reach up to 45-50°C, but ocean surfaces typically warm only to around 30°C, limiting the contrast to 15-20°C. Hence S1 likely false.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
1
2023
(b) Only two
2
2023
(d) The Charter Act of 1833
3
2023
(a) Andhra
4
2023
(b) Ports
5
2023
(d) A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death
6
2023
(a) The principle of natural justice
7
2023
(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
8
2023
(c) Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere
9
2023
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
10
2023
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 47 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on the UPSC 2023 Prelims, asked between 1995 to 2024. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for all subjects?
Questions on the UPSC 2023 Prelims are available for 30 years, from 1995 to 2024. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.