365 previous year UPSC Prelims Polity questions are on this page, from 1996 to 2025, across 30 exam years and 29 chapters. Parliament is the largest chapter, followed by Miscellaneous, Fundamental Rights and the Higher Judiciary. Filter by chapter to practise one topic, or by year to see how a single paper treated Polity. Every option opens with its correct answer and a full explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 201–210 of 365 questions
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UPSC 2012Polity · Parliament
Q201. Which reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements: 1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law. 2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in partnership with the Election Commission of India. Composition: Generally, the Delimitation Commission comprises a serving or retired Supreme Court judge as the Chairperson, an Election Commissioner nominated by the Chief Election Commissioner, and the State Election Commissioners of the respective states. Objective: To determine the number and boundaries of constituencies, to identify seats reserved for SC/ST. Delimitation Commissions have been set up four times: 1952, 1963, 1973 and
2002 under the Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002.
Statement 1 is correct: The act of Delimitation is redrawing boundaries of Lok Sabha and Assembly constituencies to represent changes in population and done on the basis of the preceding Census. Its objective is to ensure that all population groups are fairly represented, with equitable geographic distribution so that no political party benefits. A Delimitation Commission is in charge of carrying out this exercise, and its decisions are binding and cannot be challenged in court. However, in Kishorchandra Chhanganlal Rathod case SC held that constitutional courts have the power to review orders of the Delimitation Commission
Statement 2 is correct: When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
UPSC 2012Polity · Parliament
Q202. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India? 1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament. 2. Withdrawal of money from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill. 3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on accounts. 4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office. 5. Introducing the Finance Bill in the Parliament. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Article 112 of the Indian Constitution deals with placing annual financial statements in Parliament. It outlines the estimated revenue and expenditure of the government for the upcoming financial year. It is a key tool for Parliament to examine, debate, and approve the government’s financial plans:
Statement 2 is correct: Article 114 mandates that the government can withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund of India only after receiving approval from Parliament after passage of the Appropriation Bill.
Statement 3 is correct: If the government needs extra funds, it requests supplementary grants via a Supplementary Appropriation Bill. A Vote-on-Account provides interim funds until the full budget is approved. It is passed (or granted) after the general discussion on budget is over. It is generally granted for two months for an amount equivalent to one-sixth of the total estimation.
Statement 4 is incorrect: There is no such Parliamentary budget office to review programs of Government. The Estimate Committee of parliament reviews policies and continuously examines estimates of programs from time to time throughout the year.
Statement 5 is correct: The Finance Bill is a key legislative instrument that Parliament must pass to give effect to the government’s tax proposals, which are an essential part of the Budget.
UPSC 2012Polity · Higher Judiciary: Supreme Court and High Courts
Q203. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? 1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States. 2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State. 3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory. 4. A dispute between two or more States. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Explanation
The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India refers to matters that can be directly brought before the Court without needing to pass through lower courts. The Constitution of India under Article 32 and 131 outlines the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 131, a dispute between the Government of India and one or more States.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As per Article 329 (b), no election to either House of Parliament or to the House or either House of the Legislature of a State shall be called in question except by an election petition presented to such authority and in such manner as may be provided for by or under any law made by the appropriate Legislature. Hence as it cant be taken to SC court directly it does not come under original jurisdiction.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 131 doesn’t mention UT anywhere. Further, the original jurisdiction mentioned in 131 is regarding issues between the federal units.
Statement 4 is correct: According to Article 131, a dispute between two or more states comes under the Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
UPSC 2012Polity · Higher Judiciary: Supreme Court and High Courts
Q204. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India? 1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India. 2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only. 3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote. 4. All appointments of officers and staff of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 124(2) and its interpretations in various SC judgments, The judges of the SC are appointed by the President based on the recommendations of the collegium system, which involves the Chief Justice of India and senior judges of the SC (In case of elevating a HC judge, CJ of concerned HC is also consulted).
Statement 2 is incorrect: SC judge can be removed from his office by an order of President. The President can order for removal of SC Judge only after an address by Parliament has been presented to him in the same session for such removal.
Statement 3 is correct: The salaries, allowances and pensions of the judges and the staff as well as all the administrative expenses of the SC are charges on the Consolidated Fund of India. Thus they are non-votable by the Parliament.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Under Article 146. The Chief Justice of India can appoint officers and servants of the SC and can also prescribe their conditions of service.
UPSC 2012Polity · Local Government: Panchayats and Municipalities
Q205. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha? 1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas. 2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce. 3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
PESA 1996. is a vital instrument in promoting participatory democracy and inclusive development in tribal areas. PESA Act, 1996: Key Features
1. Applies to Schedule V Areas: Extends Panchayati Raj provisions to tribal areas.
2. Empowers Gram Sabha (Section 4): Authority over resources, land, markets, and dispute resolution.
3. Recognizes Tribal Rights: Protects customs, traditions, and resource management.
4. Prevents Exploitation: Requires community consent for land acquisition and mining.
5. Promotes Self-Governance: Decentralizes power to tribal communities.
Statement 1 is correct: Under Section 4(m)(iii) of PESA 1996. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land and to restore any unlawfully alienated land of a scheduled tribe.
Statement 2 is correct: The Gram Sabha, under the PESA Act, was granted wide-ranging powers, including consultation on land acquisition, ownership of minor forest produce, and the right to be consulted on leasing of minor minerals in Scheduled Areas.
Statement 3 is incorrect: As per Section 4(k) and 4(l) of the PESA Act, the Gram Sabha must be consulted before the state grants licenses for minor minerals(not all minerals) in Scheduled Areas.
UPSC 2012Polity · Constitutional Bodies
Q206. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for the intended purposes, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)? 1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares a national emergency/ financial emergency. 2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee. 3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances. 4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The CAG does not exercise exchequer control during emergencies (whether national or financial). The Finance Ministry and the Department of Economic Affairs are responsible for the management of the exchequer during such emergencies. The CAG’s role remains to audit and report on the use of public funds, but it does not have direct control over financial matters during an emergency.
Statement 2 is correct: PAC’s chief function is to examine the audit report of Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) after it is laid in the Parliament. CAG acts as a guide, friend and philosopher of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament.
Statement 3 is correct: Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
Statement 4 is incorrect: While dealing with the audit and accounting of government and PSUs, CAG does not have certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law. CAG is merely an advisory body and has some quasi-judicial powers.
UPSC 2012Polity · Constitutional Bodies
Q207. Which of the following is/are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission? 1. A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design. 2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India’s demographic dividend. 3. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: One of the notable recommendations made by the Thirteenth Finance Commission was related to the Goods and Services Tax (GST). The Commission recommended the introduction of a GST system as a comprehensive indirect tax reform. Additionally, it proposed a compensation mechanism for states that would face revenue losses during the implementation of the GST. The compensation package was meant to ensure that states did not suffer a revenue shortfall when transitioning from the existing system of sales tax and other taxes to the unified GST. The implementation of GST was linked to a timeline, and the Commission suggested setting up a GST compensation fund.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While the Thirteenth Finance Commission did acknowledge the importance of utilizing India’s demographic dividend (the large working-age population), it did not specifically design a detailed job creation strategy or suggest a mechanism for creating lakhs of jobs in the next decade. The Commission focused more on fiscal and financial management, including issues related to devolution of funds, and did not specifically lay out detailed employment schemes.
Statement 3 is correct: The Thirteenth Finance Commission recommended a specified share of central taxes to be devolved to local bodies (i.e., rural and urban local bodies) as part of the decentralization process. This was aimed at strengthening local governance and ensuring that local bodies had sufficient funds to implement schemes for development and welfare at the grassroots level.
UPSC 2012Polity · Miscellaneous
Q208. With reference to consumers’ rights/ privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing. 2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid. 3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Consumers have the right to take food samples for testing if they suspect adulteration, under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Filing a complaint in a consumer forum requires payment of a court fee, which varies depending on the value of the claim. For instance, no fee is charged for claims up to 5 lakh, but fees are applicable for higher claims as per the prescribed structure.
Statement 3 is correct: Legal heirs can file or continue consumer complaints on behalf of a deceased consumer under the Consumer Protection Act, ensuring that grievances do not lapse upon the complainant’s death.
UPSC 2011Polity · Basic Concepts
Q209. Karl Marx explained the process of class struggle with the help of which one of the following theories?
Explanation
Dialectical materialism is the philosophical foundation of Karl Marx’s theory of class struggle. It asserts that social and economic progress occurs through contradictions and conflicts between different economic classes, leading to revolutionary change. Marx argued that human history is shaped by material conditions rather than ideas alone, and that class struggle between the proletariat (working class) and bourgeoisie (capitalist class) would eventually lead to a socialist society.
UPSC 2011Polity · Fundamental Rights
Q210. In India, if a religious sect/community is given the status of a national minority, what special advantages is it entitled to? 1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions. 2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha. 3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Though the Constitution of India does not define the term ‘minorities’. Article 30 of the Constitution mandates that all minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As per the constitution, there is no provision of communal representation in Lok Sabha.
Statement 3 is correct: The objective of the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme is to enhance opportunities for education and ensure an equitable share for minorities in economic activities and employment, through existing and new schemes, enhanced credit support for self-employment, and recruitment to State and Central Government jobs in those districts which have substantial minority populations.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
201
2012
(c) Both 1 and 2
202
2012
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
203
2012
(c) 1 and 4
204
2012
(a) 1 and 3 only
205
2012
(b) 1 and 2 only
206
2012
(c) 2 and 3 only
207
2012
(c) 1 and 3 only
208
2012
(c) 1 and 3 only
209
2011
(d) Dialectical materialism
210
2011
(c) 1 and 3 only
What UPSC has tested in Polity
Parliament, Fundamental Rights, the Higher Judiciary and Local Government together account for the largest share of Polity questions in this set.
Recent papers test statements about institutions: the Governor, the President’s ordinance and pardoning powers, Lokpal, Scheduled Areas and the Speaker’s office.
Older papers lean on single-fact recall: which Article, which Amendment, which Schedule.
The 2025 paper’s Polity questions fall in Parliament, President, Governor, Constitutional Amendment, Schedules, Centre-State Relations, Local Government and non-constitutional bodies.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Polity?
This page covers 365 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Polity, asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
Which Polity chapters has UPSC asked about most?
In this set, Parliament has the most questions, followed by the Miscellaneous group, Fundamental Rights, the Higher Judiciary, Local Government, the Directive Principles and the constitutional bodies. Small chapters such as Citizenship and Judicial Review have only one question each.
How do I practise Polity PYQs chapter by chapter?
Use the Chapter filter on this page, or open a chapter link such as Preamble or Parliament. Each chapter page gives its own questions, answer key and the facts UPSC has tested, so you can finish one topic before moving to the next.
Does this page include the 2025 UPSC Prelims paper?
Yes. The 2025 paper’s Polity questions are included, and you can open them alone with the Year filter set to 2025. They cover Parliament, the President’s powers, the Governor, Schedules, Panchayats, Lokpal and Centre-State bodies.
Are cancelled or disputed UPSC questions included?
No. Questions UPSC cancelled, and questions where the available answer key is disputed, are left out so that every question here has a single correct answer with an explanation you can rely on.
