365 previous year UPSC Prelims Polity questions are on this page, from 1996 to 2025, across 30 exam years and 29 chapters. Parliament is the largest chapter, followed by Miscellaneous, Fundamental Rights and the Higher Judiciary. Filter by chapter to practise one topic, or by year to see how a single paper treated Polity. Every option opens with its correct answer and a full explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 191–200 of 365 questions
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UPSC 2012Polity · Directive Principles of State Policy
Q191. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India: 1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code. 2. Organizing village Panchayats. 3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas. 4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities. Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
Explanation
The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are mentioned under Articles 36 to 51 of the Indian Constitution. Directive Principles of State Policy are classified into Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal-Intellectual.
Article 40 of the Constitution deals with Organising Village Panchayats and endows them with necessary powers and authority to enable them to function as units of self-government. The idea of Promoting Cottage Industries on an individual or co-operation basis in rural areas is based on Gandhian Principles and is mentioned under Article 43.
Socialistic principles
Gandhian principles
Liberal-intellectual principles
Article 38: social justice
Article 40: village panchayats
Article 44: uniform civil code
Article 39: equal pay, resource distribution
Article 43: promotion of cottage industries
Article 45: early childhood care
Article 41: right to work, education and public assistance
Article 46: education and economic interests of SCs and STs
Article 48A: protection of environment
Article 42: maternity relief
Article 47: nutrition and public health
Article 49: protection of monuments
Article 43A: workers’ participation in management
Article 48: prohibition of cow slaughter and agriculture reforms
Article 50: separation of judiciary and executive
Article 47: public health
Article 51: promotion of international peace
UPSC 2012Polity · Directive Principles of State Policy
Q192. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education? 1. Directive Principles of State Policy. 2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies. 3. Fifth Schedule 4. Sixth Schedule 5. Seventh Schedule Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Explanation
Option (1) is correct: Directive Principle of State lays down the provisions of education under:
Article 45: Provides for early childhood care and education. Article 46: Promotes educational and economic interests of weaker sections (SCs, STs, and other disadvantaged groups).
Option (2) is correct: Rural and Urban Local Bodies The Schedule 11 added by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, specifies the powers, responsibilities and authority of Panchayat and under Article 243-G the Panchayati Raj Institutions have allowed 29 subjects to work in their local areas and Education is one of them. The Schedule 12 added by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, specifies the powers, responsibilities and authority of Municipalities and under the Article 243-W the Constitution provides for 18 subjects to the Municipalities including education. Options (3) and (4) are correct:
Fifth Schedule: Governs Scheduled Areas and Tribes, ensuring educational development for tribal communities through special provisions. Sixth Schedule: Grants Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) in the Northeast the power to make laws on primary and secondary education.
Option (5) is correct: The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 shifted the education from State list to Concurrent list in Seventh Schedule. Now, Education is in the Concurrent List (Entry 25), meaning both the Centre and States can legislate on it.
UPSC 2012Polity · Fundamental Duties
Q193. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution? 1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture. 2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice. 3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry. 4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Explanation
Article 51A of part IV-A of the Indian Constitution deals with the Fundamental Duties. These duties are the moral and civic obligations that all citizens of a nation have. In 1976, the Fundamental Duties were first recommended by the Swaran Singh Committee by 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. One more Fundamental Duty was added by 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002. List of Fundamental Duties are - To abide by the Constitution and respect National Flag and National Anthem (Not national song) To follow the noble ideals that inspired the struggle for freedom. To protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India. To render national service when called upon to do so. To promote the common spirit of brotherhood amongst all Indians and to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women. To preserve the rich heritage of the country’s culture. To protect the national environment including forests, lakes, wildlife, etc. To develop scientific temper, humanism and spirit of reform and inquiry. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individuals. To provide opportunity for education to his child between the age 6 and 14 years Thus, Protecting the weaker sections from social injustice is more relevant to Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP), not Fundamental Duties.
UPSC 2012Polity · President
Q194. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following? 1. The Recommendation of the Union Finance Commission. 2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee. 3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General. 4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Explanation
India follows a Parliamentary type of Government in which the President is the constitutional head of the state. He is the Executive head of India and all the executive powers of the Union shall be vested in him. The President lays Reports and Statements before the parliament of the following bodies:
Reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General Annual report of UPSC Reports of Finance Commission. Reports of Special officers of SC & ST Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Report of the National Commission of Backward Classes.
UPSC 2012Polity · Prime Minister
Q195. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment:
Explanation
As per the Article 75(1) of the Indian Constitution, the Prime Minister is appointed by the President, who also appoints other ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister. A person who is not a member of the Parliament/State legislature can be appointed as PM/CM for six months, within which time, he should be elected to the Parliament/State legislature as per Supreme Court judgments.
UPSC 2012Polity · Parliament
Q196. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is
Explanation
Adjournment Motion is one of the devices of Parliamentary proceedings. The purpose of an Adjournment Motion is to raise an issue of urgent public importance that requires immediate discussion in the Parliament. It is typically used to bring up issues related to national or regional significance, like natural disasters, economic crises, or controversial government actions. The motion requires the approval of the Speaker or Chairman, and if allowed, the matter is debated in the House. It needs the support of 50 members to be admitted.
UPSC 2012Polity · Parliament
Q197. Consider the following statements: 1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha. 2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes. 3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 80 of the Constitution, the Rajya Sabha consists of members nominated members (not more than 12) and representatives of States (indirectly elected by legislative councils of states) and Union Territories (to be chosen in such manner as parliament may prescribe by law). U.T of NCT of Delhi and Puducherry have representation in Rajya sabha who are chosen through indirect election by their respective legislative assemblies.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) does not have the authority to adjudicate election disputes. While the ECI supervises elections, disputes are handled by Election Tribunals or High Courts. The Supreme Court and High Courts have the power to adjudicate such matters. Election Petitions under Part III of the Presidential and Vice Presidential Elections Act, 1952 are also filed directly in the Supreme Court. Disputes relating to the election of members of Parliament and state legislatures lie within the original jurisdiction of High Courts.
Statement 3 is incorrect: According to Article 79 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the President of India.
UPSC 2012Polity · Parliament
Q198. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements: 1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President. 2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/ her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election. 3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Speaker is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha. Article 93 to 97 of the Constitution of India deals with the provisions of the Presiding officer of the Lok Sabha. Usually, the Speaker remains in office during the life of the Lok Sabha. There is no role of the President in removing the Speaker. Hence, The Speaker of the Lok Sabha does not hold office during the pleasure of the President. It should be noted here that, whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate his office and continues till the newly-elected Lok Sabha meets.
Statement 2 is incorrect: According to Article 93 of the Constitution, the Speaker must be a member of the Lok Sabha at the time of their election. The condition to become a member within six months applies to ministers under Article 75(5), not to the Speaker.
Statement 3 is correct: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has to vacate his office earlier in any of the following three cases:
If he ceases to be a member of the Lok Sabha; If he resigns by writing to the Deputy Speaker; and If he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all, then members of the Lok Sabha. Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days’ advance notice.
UPSC 2012Polity · Parliament
Q199. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?
Explanation
The Rajya Sabha has been given four exclusive or special powers that are not enjoyed by the Lok Sabha:
It can authorise the Parliament to make a law on a subject enumerated in the State List (Article 249). It can authorise the Parliament to create new All-India Services common to both the Centre and states (Article 312). Resolution for the removal of the vice-president can be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha not in the Lok Sabha (Article 67). A proclamation for declaring a national emergency, President’s rule, or a financial emergency (under Articles 352, 356, and 360) can remain in effect even if it is approved only by the Rajya Sabha in case the Lok Sabha is dissolved before or during the emergency period.
UPSC 2012Polity · Parliament
Q200. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of 1. Ordinary Legislation 2. Money Bill 3. Constitution Amendment Bill Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Explanation
Provision of Joint sitting of two houses of parliament is given under Article 108. It is an extraordinary mechanism to break a deadlock between the two Houses over the passage of a bill. The president can summon joint sitting for the purpose of deliberating and voting on the bill.It is applicable to ordinary bills or financial bills only and not to money bills or Constitutional amendment bills. The quorum to constitute a joint sitting shall be one-tenth of the total number of members of the Houses. The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting. In their absence, the Deputy Speaker takes charge, followed by the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. If none are available, members present elect a presiding officer.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
191
2012
(b) 2 and 3 only
192
2012
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
193
2012
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
194
2012
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
195
2012
(a) Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months
196
2012
(a) to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance.
197
2012
(d) None
198
2012
(b) 3 only
199
2012
(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services.
200
2012
(a) 1 only
What UPSC has tested in Polity
Parliament, Fundamental Rights, the Higher Judiciary and Local Government together account for the largest share of Polity questions in this set.
Recent papers test statements about institutions: the Governor, the President’s ordinance and pardoning powers, Lokpal, Scheduled Areas and the Speaker’s office.
Older papers lean on single-fact recall: which Article, which Amendment, which Schedule.
The 2025 paper’s Polity questions fall in Parliament, President, Governor, Constitutional Amendment, Schedules, Centre-State Relations, Local Government and non-constitutional bodies.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Polity?
This page covers 365 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Polity, asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
Which Polity chapters has UPSC asked about most?
In this set, Parliament has the most questions, followed by the Miscellaneous group, Fundamental Rights, the Higher Judiciary, Local Government, the Directive Principles and the constitutional bodies. Small chapters such as Citizenship and Judicial Review have only one question each.
How do I practise Polity PYQs chapter by chapter?
Use the Chapter filter on this page, or open a chapter link such as Preamble or Parliament. Each chapter page gives its own questions, answer key and the facts UPSC has tested, so you can finish one topic before moving to the next.
Does this page include the 2025 UPSC Prelims paper?
Yes. The 2025 paper’s Polity questions are included, and you can open them alone with the Year filter set to 2025. They cover Parliament, the President’s powers, the Governor, Schedules, Panchayats, Lokpal and Centre-State bodies.
Are cancelled or disputed UPSC questions included?
No. Questions UPSC cancelled, and questions where the available answer key is disputed, are left out so that every question here has a single correct answer with an explanation you can rely on.
