Polity: UPSC Previous Year Questions (Prelims)

Explanation

The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India plays a crucial role in auditing and reporting on the financial transactions of the Indian government. However, some functions fall outside the purview of the CAG’s responsibilities. Statement (a) is correct: The CAG audits and reports on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, which includes government expenses related to various ministries and departments. Statement (b) is correct: The CAG is responsible for auditing and reporting on all expenditures from the Contingency Funds and Public Accounts. These funds are used for emergency and specific purposes, respectively. Statement (c) is correct: The CAG also audits and reports on trading, manufacturing, and profit and loss accounts of government-owned enterprises and other related entities. Statement (d) is incorrect: The duty of controlling the receipt and disbursement of public money and ensuring public revenue is deposited into the exchequer is managed by other government entities, such as the Ministry of Finance and the Reserve Bank of India.

Explanation

Option (c) is correct: Article 350-A of the Indian Constitution directs that every state should endeavor to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education. Options (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect:

Article 349 of the Indian Constitution deals with laws related to language. For 15 years after the Constitution’s commencement, any bill or amendment related to language must receive the President’s prior approval, which is given after considering recommendations from the Commission and the report of the Committee constituted under Article 344. Article 350 of the Indian Constitution ensures that individuals can submit grievances to any authority in the Union or State in a language they’re comfortable with. This provision promotes inclusivity and accessibility, recognizing India’s linguistic diversity and ensuring that language doesn’t become a barrier in seeking justice or redressal Article 351 directs the promotion of the Hindi language and aims to make it a unifying language for India by enriching its vocabulary and usage. It does not deal with the issue of primary education in the mother tongue.

Explanation

The Fourth Schedule of the Indian Constitution specifies the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha, detailing the representation of each state and union territory in the Council of States. Options (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect:

The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the scheme of distribution of powers between the Union and the States. It is divided into three lists: the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List. recognized languages. The Fifth and sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the provision regarding the administration of tribal areas

Explanation

A new state is created by Parliament under Article 2 or Article 3. Article 4 specifies that creating a state does not require a constitutional amendment. However, according to article 1 the First Schedule, listing states and their boundaries, must be amended while a new state of the Union to be created.

Explanation

A is matched with 1: Article 54 provides for the election of the President of India. B is matched with 2: Article 75 has provision for the appointment of the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers. C is matched with 3: Article 155 corresponds to the appointment of the Governor of a State. D is matched with 4: Article 164 provides for the appointment of the Chief Minister and Council of Ministers of a State. Article 170 gives the composition of the Legislative Assembly.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Representation of the People Act, 1951, under Section 29A, provides for the registration of political parties with the Election Commission of India (ECI).

Statement 2 is correct: The Election Commission of India is responsible for the registration of political parties in India as per the provisions of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.

Statement 3 is correct: The criteria for recognizing a national party includes being recognized in at least four or more states as per the Election Commission’s guidelines. Hence, a party can be considered national if it fulfills certain criteria, which includes recognition in four or more states.

Statement 4 is correct: During the 1999 general elections, there were indeed six national parties and 48 state-level parties recognized by the Election Commission.

Explanation

With respect to year in which this question was asked:

A is matched with 3: The Ministry of Industry is responsible for publishing the Wholesale Price Index (WPI), a vital measure of inflation that tracks the price movement of goods at the wholesale level. B is matched with 4: The Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) publishes the National Accounts Statistics, providing comprehensive data on India’s GDP, economic growth, and macroeconomic indicators. C is matched with 1: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) releases the Report on Currency and Finance, a detailed analysis of the country’s monetary policy, financial stability, and economic trends. D is matched with 2: The Ministry of Finance publishes the Economic Survey annually, which serves as a review of the country’s economic performance and provides policy suggestions ahead of the Union Budget.

Explanation

The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act of 1992, commonly referred to as the Panchayati Raj Act, was a landmark legislation aimed at empowering local self-governance in India, especially at the grassroots level. Institutions were created to function at three levels: village, intermediate (block), and district levels, with the goal of decentralizing power and fostering local self-governance. It sought to ensure effective economic and social development through empowered local bodies. The Act aimed to empower rural areas by providing constitutional status to Panchayats, enhancing their role in local governance, economic development, and social justice.

Explanation

The powers and functions of the Parliament are mentioned in Chapter II of Part V of the Constitution. Under this, the Parliament is empowered to make laws on all matters listed in the Union list and Concurrent list of the Constitution.

Option (d) is correct: According to article 253, it can also formulate laws on any matter pertaining to the State list if it is deemed necessary for the implementation of International Treaties or Agreements concluded with foreign nations. This provision ensures that India can fulfill its international obligations effectively. Hence, no consent from the states is required.

Explanation

Statement (a) is incorrect: A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha on the prior recommendation of the President, as per Article 109 of the Indian Constitution. It cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha. Statement (b) is correct: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a bill is a Money Bill or not. This decision is final and cannot be questioned in any court. However, in Rojer Mathew v South Indian Bank Ltd Case, 2019 Supreme court said that the speaker’s decision was not beyond judicial review though the scope was extremely restricted. Statement (c) is correct: After the Lok Sabha passes the Money Bill, it is sent to the Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha has 14 days to either accept, reject, or recommend changes in the bill to the Lok Sabha. The Lok Sabha can either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha. Statement (d) is correct: Once the Money Bill has been passed by the Lok Sabha (and the Rajya Sabha, if applicable), it is sent to the President for approval. The President may either give or withhold his assent to a Money Bill. The President cannot return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration.