365 previous year UPSC Prelims Polity questions are on this page, from 1996 to 2025, across 30 exam years and 29 chapters. Parliament is the largest chapter, followed by Miscellaneous, Fundamental Rights and the Higher Judiciary. Filter by chapter to practise one topic, or by year to see how a single paper treated Polity. Every option opens with its correct answer and a full explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 281–290 of 365 questions
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UPSC 2004Polity · Schedules
Q281. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
Explanation
The Fourth Schedule of the Indian Constitution specifies the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha, detailing the representation of each state and union territory in the Council of States. Options (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect:
The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the scheme of distribution of powers between the Union and the States. It is divided into three lists: the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List. recognized languages. The Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions regarding the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states, excluding Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
UPSC 2004Polity · Miscellaneous
Q282. Consider the following events: 1. Fourth general elections in India 2. Formation of Haryana state 3. Mysore named as Karnataka state 4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full states Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above?
Explanation
Option (a) is correct: The event sequence is 2-1-4-3. Formation of Haryana State from Punjab in 1966. Fourth general elections in India were conducted in 1967. Meghalaya and Tripura became full states in 1972. Mysore was renamed as Karnataka State in 1973.
UPSC 2004Polity · Miscellaneous
Q283. The Archaeological Survey of India is an attached office of the Department/Ministry of:
Explanation
The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) operates under the Ministry of Culture.The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), founded in 1861, oversees archaeological research, and the preservation of over 3,600 monuments and sites of national importance, including UNESCO World Heritage Sites. It conducts excavations and conservation projects to protect India’s cultural heritage.
UPSC 2004Polity · Miscellaneous
Q284. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the descending order of precedence in the warrant of precedence?
Explanation
The correct sequence in descending order is Judges of the Supreme Court-Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha-Attorney General of India-Members of Parliament. The correct sequence in the descending order of precedence in the warrant of precedence is:
1. President of India
2. Vice President of India
3. Prime Minister of India
4. Governors of States within their respective States
6. Speaker of Lok Sabha, and Chief Justice of India
7. Cabinet Ministers of the Union. 7A. Holders of Bharat Ratna decoration
8. Chief Ministers of States outside their respective States. Governors of States outside their respective States.
9. Judges of the Supreme Court
10. Deputy Chairman of RS
11. Attorney General of India
12. Member of Parliament
UPSC 2003Polity · Historical Background
Q285. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
List-I (Items in the Indian Constitution)
List-II (Country from which it was derived)
A. Directive Principles of State Policy
1. Australia
B. Fundamental Right
2. Canada
C. Concurrent List in Union-State Relations
3. Ireland
D. India as a Union of States with greater powers to the Union
4. United Kingdom
5. United States of America
Explanation
The Indian Constitution is a unique blend of influences from various countries, incorporating their best practices into its framework. Directive Principles of State Policy were inspired by Ireland. The Irish Constitution provided the model for including socio-economic rights in the form of guiding principles for state policy. Fundamental Rights were borrowed from the United States of America. The American Bill of Rights served as the inspiration for ensuring basic human rights in India. The Concurrent List in Union-State Relations was influenced by Australia, reflecting their federal structure. The concept of India as a Union of States with greater powers to the Union was derived from Canada, which has a strong federal system with residual powers vested in the central government. List-I (Items in the Indian Constitution) List-II (Country from which it was derived Parliamentary System of Government United Kingdom President as Supreme Commander of Armed Forces United States of America Procedure for Amendment of the Constitution South Africa Emergency Provisions (National Emergency) Germany (Weimar Constitution)
UPSC 2003Polity · Constitutional Amendment
Q286. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of Members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the States?
Explanation
Option (a) is incorrect: The 6th Amendment relates to change in the Union List and State List with respect to raising of taxes while the 22nd Amendment allows the formation of autonomous states within Assam.
Option (b) is incorrect: The 13th Amendment provided special protection under Article 371A for the newly created State of Nagaland and the 38th Amendment empowers the President with authority to declare certain ordinances beyond judicial review.
Option (c) is correct: The 7th Amendment provided for the reorganization of states, which included adjustments to parliamentary representation. The 31st Amendment increased the number of Lok Sabha seats from 525 to 545, directly addressing the representation from states.
Option (d) is incorrect: The 11th Amendment concerns the election of the Vice President by Electoral College consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament, instead of election by a Joint Sitting of Parliament while the 42nd Amendment is known as the "Mini-Constitution" and introduced comprehensive changes to various aspects of the Constitution, including the Preamble and Directive Principles.
UPSC 2003Polity · Emergency Provisions
Q287. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that ‘It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance’?
Explanation
Article 355 states that "It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution."
UPSC 2003Polity · President
Q288. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his assent to the ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes (in the year 2002)?
Explanation
Option (a) is incorrect: Article 121 prohibits parliamentary discussions on judges’ conduct except during removal motions.
Option (b) is incorrect: Article 122 prohibits courts from questioning parliamentary procedures and conduct of business within Parliament.
Option (c) is correct: Article 123 allows the President to issue ordinances when Parliament is not in session, giving them the same effect as laws. These ordinances are issued based on the Council of Ministers’ advice, as outlined in Article 74.
Option (d) is incorrect: Article 124 outlines the establishment, appointment, and tenure of Supreme Court judges.
UPSC 2003Polity · President
Q289. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President make a reference to the Supreme Court to seek the Court’s opinion on the Constitutional validity of the Election Commission’s decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly Elections (in the year 2002)?
Explanation
Article 143 allows the President to seek the Supreme Court’s advice on legal questions or public matters. The President can also refer disputes from treaties or agreements for the Court’s opinion.
Option (b) is correct: The President sought the Supreme Court’s opinion under Article 143 on deferring Gujarat Assembly Elections.
Option (a), (c) and (d) are incorrect:
Article 142 empowers the Supreme Court to pass any order necessary for doing complete justice in any case. Article 144 mandates that all authorities in India assist in implementing Supreme Court orders and decrees. Article 145 allows the Supreme Court to frame rules for regulating its practices and procedures.
UPSC 2003Polity · President
Q290. Consider the following statements: In the electoral college for Presidential Election in India, 1. The value of the vote of an elected Member of Legislative Assembly equals State Population × 100 = Number of Elected MLAs of the State 2. The value of the vote of an elected Member of Parliament equals to total value of the votes of all elected MLA’s divided by total number of elected MP’s 3. There were more than 5000 members in the latest elections. Which of these statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The formula: The value of the vote of an elected Member of Legislative Assembly equals = [{State Population / (Number of Elected MLAs of the state} X 1000]. Thus the equation should have 1000 at the place of multiplication not 100.
Statement 2 is correct: The statement is slightly incorrect because the value of vote of an elected member of the Parliament equals the total value of the votes of all elected MLAs divided by total number of elected MPs.
Statement 3 is incorrect: For the 2003 question the latest Presidential election was held in 2002 which had 4896 electors.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
281
2004
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
282
2004
(a) 2, 1, 4, 3
283
2004
(a) Culture
284
2004
(b) Judges of the Supreme Court-Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha-Attorney General of India-Members of the Parliament
285
2003
(d) A-3, B-5, C-1, D-2
286
2003
(c) 7th and 31st
287
2003
(d) Article 355
288
2003
(c) Article 123
289
2003
(b) Article 143
290
2003
(b) Only 2
What UPSC has tested in Polity
Parliament, Fundamental Rights, the Higher Judiciary and Local Government together account for the largest share of Polity questions in this set.
Recent papers test statements about institutions: the Governor, the President’s ordinance and pardoning powers, Lokpal, Scheduled Areas and the Speaker’s office.
Older papers lean on single-fact recall: which Article, which Amendment, which Schedule.
The 2025 paper’s Polity questions fall in Parliament, President, Governor, Constitutional Amendment, Schedules, Centre-State Relations, Local Government and non-constitutional bodies.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Polity?
This page covers 365 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Polity, asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
Which Polity chapters has UPSC asked about most?
In this set, Parliament has the most questions, followed by the Miscellaneous group, Fundamental Rights, the Higher Judiciary, Local Government, the Directive Principles and the constitutional bodies. Small chapters such as Citizenship and Judicial Review have only one question each.
How do I practise Polity PYQs chapter by chapter?
Use the Chapter filter on this page, or open a chapter link such as Preamble or Parliament. Each chapter page gives its own questions, answer key and the facts UPSC has tested, so you can finish one topic before moving to the next.
Does this page include the 2025 UPSC Prelims paper?
Yes. The 2025 paper’s Polity questions are included, and you can open them alone with the Year filter set to 2025. They cover Parliament, the President’s powers, the Governor, Schedules, Panchayats, Lokpal and Centre-State bodies.
Are cancelled or disputed UPSC questions included?
No. Questions UPSC cancelled, and questions where the available answer key is disputed, are left out so that every question here has a single correct answer with an explanation you can rely on.
