365 previous year UPSC Prelims Polity questions are on this page, from 1996 to 2025, across 30 exam years and 29 chapters. Parliament is the largest chapter, followed by Miscellaneous, Fundamental Rights and the Higher Judiciary. Filter by chapter to practise one topic, or by year to see how a single paper treated Polity. Every option opens with its correct answer and a full explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 251–260 of 365 questions
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UPSC 2006Polity · Constitutional Amendment
Q251. What does the 104th Constitution Amendment Bill relate to?
Explanation
The 104th Constitution Amendment Bill deals specifically with the issue of reservation or quota for Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs) in private educational institutions. It was aimed to extend the reservations or affirmative action to private educational institutions so that SEBCs could access quality education in private institutions as well. Before this amendment, reservation policies applied primarily to government-run institutions, and private institutions were largely free to admit students on their own terms, without any mandatory quota for backward classes.
UPSC 2006Polity · Parliament
Q252. Consider the following statements: 1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national interest for the Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List. 2. Resolutions approving the proclamation of Emergency are passed only by the Lok Sabha. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Article 249 empowers the Rajya Sabha to pass a resolution allowing Parliament to legislate on matters in the State List if it is in the national interest. This resolution requires a two-thirds majority and remains in effect for one year, with the possibility of extension through subsequent resolutions.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The proclamation of emergency must be approved by a special majority of both the Houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its issue under article 352(6). If a proclamation of emergency is issued when the Lok Sabha is dissolved, or if it dissolves within one month without approval, the proclamation remains valid for 30 days from the first sitting of the newly reconstituted Lok Sabha, provided the Rajya Sabha approves it in the meantime. If approved by both the houses, the Emergency continues for 6 months and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months.
UPSC 2006Polity · Higher Judiciary: Supreme Court and High Courts
Q253. Assertion (A): In India, every State has a High Court in its territory. Reason (R): The Constitution of India provides a High Court in each State. Codes:
Explanation
India’s justice system is a three-tiered structure comprising the Supreme Court at the top, followed by High Courts in each state or group of states, and subordinate courts at the district and local levels. This system ensures the rule of law, protection of rights, and fair adjudication of disputes. Assertion (A) is False: India has 28 states but only 25 High Courts. Some, like the Guwahati High Court, serve multiple states. Therefore, not every state has its own High Court. Reason (B) is True: The Indian Constitution provides for High Courts for each state (Article 214) but Article 231 also enables the Parliament to establish common HC for two or more states or for two or more States and a Union territory.
UPSC 2006Polity · Higher Judiciary: Supreme Court and High Courts
Q254. Who was the Chief Justice of India when Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was introduced to the Indian judicial system?
Explanation
PILs protect disadvantaged communities who can’t seek justice themselves. They can be filed in the Supreme Court and High Courts under Article 32 (right to move the Supreme Court) and Article 226 (power of High Courts to issue writs). Justice P.N. Bhagwati introduced Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India in the 1980s, broadening the judiciary’s role to address public grievances and protect marginalized communities. His efforts democratized the judicial process, allowing direct court access for significant public matters. This made the justice system more accessible and responsive to societal issues. However, the concept was first pioneered by Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer in cases like Mumbai Kamgar Sabha vs. Abdulbhai Faizullabhai (1976) and Fertilizer Corporation Kamgar Union vs. Union of India (1981). Justice Bhagwati significantly expanded PILs through landmark cases like Hussainara Khatoon vs. State of Bihar (1979) and S.P. Gupta vs. Union of India (1981).
UPSC 2006Polity · Higher Judiciary: Supreme Court and High Courts
Q255. Consider the following statements: 1. A person who has held office as a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India except of the Supreme Court. 2. A person is not qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court in India unless he has for at least five years held a judicial office in the territory of India. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Explanation
The judges and the Chief Judge of a HC are appointed by the President after consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the concerned state.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 220 of the Indian Constitution prohibits retired High Court judges from practicing in the same High Court but allows them to practice in other courts in India, including the Supreme Court.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 217 of the Indian Constitution stipulates that a person can be appointed as a High Court judge if they have held a judicial office in India for at least ten years or have served as an advocate of a High Court (or High Courts in succession) for at least ten years.
UPSC 2006Polity · Centre-State Relations
Q256. Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India?
Explanation
Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India enumerates subjects on which only the Parliament has exclusive legislative powers.
Option (a) is correct: Under the Seventh Schedule, the Union List includes 100 subjects (originally 97), covering matters of national importance. Among the options:
Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields - Falls under the Union List (Entry 55). These industries involve inter-state implications, requiring uniform regulation. Agriculture - Falls under the State List (Entry 14), as it is primarily a state subject. Fisheries - Fisheries in inland and territorial waters are in the State List (Entry 21), while regulation of fisheries in EEZ and beyond territorial waters is in the Union List (Entry 57). Public Health - Falls under the State List (Entry 6)
UPSC 2006Polity · Constitutional Bodies
Q257. Which one among the following commission was set up in pursuance of a definite provision under an Article of the Constitution of India?
Explanation
Option (a) is incorrect: University Grants Commission (UGC) was established through the University Grants Commission Act, 1956, a legislation passed by Parliament. It is not a constitutional body.
Option (b) is incorrect: National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) was formed under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. It is a statutory body, not constituted by a constitutional provision.
Option (c) is correct: The correct answer is the Election Commission, as it is established under Articles 324 to 329 of the Indian Constitution. These articles outline the creation of the Election Commission and the framework for conducting elections in the country.
Option (d) is incorrect: Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was initially set up through an executive resolution in 1964, later gaining statutory status through the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003. However, it is not created by a specific constitutional article.
UPSC 2005Polity · Historical Background
Q258. Who among the following was the chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
Explanation
The Constituent Assembly of India, tasked with drafting the Constitution, formed several committees to address specific aspects of the Constitution. One of these was the Union Constitution Committee, which focused on defining the federal structure and relationship between the union and the states. Jawaharlal Nehru was appointed as the Chairman of the Union Constitution Committee. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee, which was responsible for the final wording of the Constitution. J. B. Kripalani and Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar were also influential members of the Constituent Assembly but did not chair this committee.
UPSC 2005Polity · Salient Features of the Constitution
Q259. Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts. 2. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of India in all. 3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendment) Acts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Constitution of India originally had 22 parts, though with amendments, it now has 25 parts. Thus, the statement that the Constitution has 20 parts is incorrect.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: Originally, the Constitution had 395 Articles, but due to amendments, the number of Articles has increased to 448.
Statement 3 is correct:
Schedule
Added by
Purpose
Ninth
First Amendment Act (1951)
Protects certain laws (mainly land reforms) from judicial review.
Tenth
Fifty-Second Amendment Act (1985)
Deals with disqualification of legislators on grounds of defection (Anti-Defection Law).
Eleventh
Seventy-Third Amendment Act (1992)
Defines powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayati Raj institutions.
Twelfth
Seventy-Fourth Amendment Act (1992)
Lists functions and responsibilities of municipalities.
UPSC 2005Polity · Fundamental Rights
Q260. Consider the following statements: 1. Article 301 pertains to the Right to Property. 2. Right to Property is a legal right but not a Fundamental Right. 3. Article 300 A was inserted in the Constitution of India by the Congress Government at the Centre by the 44th Constitutional Amendment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 301 pertains to the freedom of trade, commerce, and intercourse throughout India, not the Right to Property. Currently, The Right to Property is covered under Article 300A of the Indian Constitution.
Statement 2 is Correct: The Right to Property, initially a Fundamental Right under Article 31, was made a legal right through the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 and placed under Article 300A.
Statement 3 is Incorrect: Article 300A was indeed inserted by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978, but not by the Congress government. The 44th Amendment removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights and made it a legal right under Article 300A. This change was made during the Janata Party government, not the Congress Party government.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
251
2006
(c) Providing quota to socially and educationally backward classes in private educational institutions.
252
2006
(a) 1 only
253
2006
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true.
254
2006
(d) P. N. Bhagwati
255
2006
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
256
2006
(a) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields
257
2006
(c) Election Commission
258
2005
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
259
2005
(c) 3 only
260
2005
(a) 2 only
What UPSC has tested in Polity
Parliament, Fundamental Rights, the Higher Judiciary and Local Government together account for the largest share of Polity questions in this set.
Recent papers test statements about institutions: the Governor, the President’s ordinance and pardoning powers, Lokpal, Scheduled Areas and the Speaker’s office.
Older papers lean on single-fact recall: which Article, which Amendment, which Schedule.
The 2025 paper’s Polity questions fall in Parliament, President, Governor, Constitutional Amendment, Schedules, Centre-State Relations, Local Government and non-constitutional bodies.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Polity?
This page covers 365 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Polity, asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
Which Polity chapters has UPSC asked about most?
In this set, Parliament has the most questions, followed by the Miscellaneous group, Fundamental Rights, the Higher Judiciary, Local Government, the Directive Principles and the constitutional bodies. Small chapters such as Citizenship and Judicial Review have only one question each.
How do I practise Polity PYQs chapter by chapter?
Use the Chapter filter on this page, or open a chapter link such as Preamble or Parliament. Each chapter page gives its own questions, answer key and the facts UPSC has tested, so you can finish one topic before moving to the next.
Does this page include the 2025 UPSC Prelims paper?
Yes. The 2025 paper’s Polity questions are included, and you can open them alone with the Year filter set to 2025. They cover Parliament, the President’s powers, the Governor, Schedules, Panchayats, Lokpal and Centre-State bodies.
Are cancelled or disputed UPSC questions included?
No. Questions UPSC cancelled, and questions where the available answer key is disputed, are left out so that every question here has a single correct answer with an explanation you can rely on.