365 previous year UPSC Prelims Polity questions are on this page, from 1996 to 2025, across 30 exam years and 29 chapters. Parliament is the largest chapter, followed by Miscellaneous, Fundamental Rights and the Higher Judiciary. Filter by chapter to practise one topic, or by year to see how a single paper treated Polity. Every option opens with its correct answer and a full explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 131–140 of 365 questions
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UPSC 2017Polity · Directive Principles of State Policy
Q131. Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?
Explanation
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976, was enacted during the Emergency period under Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. It significantly altered the Constitution adding in the Preamble socialist, secular, and integrity objectives.
Option (b) is correct: The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added three new Directive Principles to the original list and they are:
Article 39 A: To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor. Article 43 A: To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries. Article 48 A: To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife.
Additional insight:
Other additions to DPSPs were: 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 added Article 38(2): The State shall strive to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities, and opportunities among individuals and groups residing in different areas or engaged in different occupations. 86th Amendment Act of 2002: It modified Article 45 and introduced Article 21A, making elementary education a fundamental right.
UPSC 2017Polity · Directive Principles of State Policy
Q132. Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon 1. legislative function. 2. executive function. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
The directive principles are in the nature of instruments of instruction to the government of the day to achieve certain ends by their actions. Directive Principles of State Policy does not impose any limitations on any organ of the State but they act as moral and political obligations for the state to pursue welfare-oriented policies. It is a guideline that the government of the day can use for the welfare of the socially and economically backward classes while framing any rules. It is the fundamental rights that constitute limitations upon state action (whether legislative or executive).
Exam tip:
DPSPs are guiding principles, not binding restrictions. They are meant to guide legislation and executive actions -- not limit them. So logically, "limitation" guidance. Hence both statements are likely false.
UPSC 2017Polity · Fundamental Duties
Q133. Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen? 1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties. 2. They are correlative to legal duties. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Fundamental Duties are enumerated in Part IV-A and consists of single Article 51A with 11 sub-articles.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution are outlined in Article 51A (Part IVA) and were added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. These duties aim to promote a sense of responsibility, unity, and patriotism among Indian citizens. They serve as guidelines for citizens to contribute to the welfare of the nation. But no legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties. These duties are thus non-enforceable and non-justiciable in nature. However, courts have interpreted them as complementary to Fundamental Rights, and certain laws indirectly enforce them. Example: The Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971 penalizes disrespect to the National Flag and National Anthem, indirectly enforcing Article 51A(a). Example: The Environment Protection Act, 1986 enforces Article 51A(g) (duty to protect the environment).
Statement 2 is incorrect: Fundamental Duties are not legally enforceable duties like legal obligations. They are moral obligations intended to promote civic responsibility and national consciousness, but there are no direct legal consequences for their violation.
Exam tip:
For S2, "Correlative" means they go hand-in-hand -- if you have a legal duty, then you also have a constitutional duty, and vice versa. But that’s not necessarily true. Many legal duties (e.g. paying taxes, obeying traffic laws) exist regardless of Fundamental Duties. And many Fundamental Duties (like developing scientific temper or promoting harmony) are moral/ethical, not legal mandates. Hence S2 likely false.
UPSC 2017Polity · Emergency Provisions
Q134. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State? 1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly 2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State 3. Dissolution of the local bodies Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: As per article 356 of the Constitution of India, the president has the authority to declare if he is satisfied that the state government cannot function in accordance with the Constitution’s provisions. (The President can act on the report of the governor or otherwise). But the ground for Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly is not necessarily the consequence of proclamation.
Statement 2 is incorrect: When the President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister.
Statement 3 is correct: There is no mention of Dissolution of the local bodies during the proclamation of President’s Rule.
UPSC 2017Polity · Systems of Government
Q135. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity
Explanation
Democracy thrives on active citizen participation. It is shaped by the collective wisdom, judgment, and moral character of the people. Unlike authoritarian systems that concentrate power in a few hands, democracy nurtures the intelligence and character of individuals. It empowers ordinary men and women to take part in decision-making. This ensures that governance reflects public interest, accountability, and justice. People can express their opinions, contribute to society, and help shape the nation’s future. Democracy stands out for fostering widespread involvement and collective responsibility.
Exam tip:
Democracy is for the people, by the people, and of the people. If a question asks about the superior virtue of democracy, the correct option must directly refer to the people. Only option A does that -- so it’s most likely correct
UPSC 2017Polity · Parliament
Q136. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by:
Explanation
For a candidate to stand for election to the Lok Sabha (the lower house of the Indian Parliament), certain eligibility criteria must be met, as stipulated by the Section 33 of Representation of the People Act, 1951 and the Constitution of India such as:
1. The candidate must be a citizen of India
2. The age of the candidate should not less than 25 years of age
3. The candidate must be registered as an elector for a parliamentary constituency.
Exam tip:
For A, "Residing" is too generic. Even a foreign national or a minor may reside in India -- does that qualify them to contest Lok Sabha? Clearly no. Hence false. For B, PM Modi contested from Varanasi despite being from Gujarat. Hence likely false. For D, A 5 year old is a Citizen of India, can S/He contest? Clearly No! Hence most logical choice left is option C.
UPSC 2017Polity · Parliament
Q137. Consider the following statements: 1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected. 2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian constitution adopts the first-past-the-post (FPTP) system of elections where a candidate is declared elected if he/she gets a plurality of the votes, not necessarily 50 percent of the total votes polled. This means that the candidate with the highest number of votes among all contenders is declared the winner, even if they do not achieve an absolute majority.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Under Article 93, Speaker and Deputy speaker are elected by the house. This is a convention (not constitutional provision) that usually the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition. This is an established convention to maintain a balance of power and ensure that the ruling party does not control both the key positions.
Exam tip:
For Option A, just required normal observation, Have candidates ever won elections even when many others contested, and they got only 30-35% votes?" Yes, frequently -- especially in multi-cornered contests. Hence S1 likely false. For S2, The phrase "as per the Constitution" is the trap.
UPSC 2017Polity · Parliament
Q138. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through 1. Adjournment motion 2. Questions hour 3. Supplementary questions Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
The Parliament of India exercises control over the Council of Ministers (including the Prime Minister and other ministers) through various mechanisms such as:
Adjournment Motion is introduced to draw attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance which is definite, factual, urgent, matter of recent occurrence. It needs the support of 50 members to be admitted. It involves an element of censure against the government and hence Rajya Sabha is not permitted to make use of this device. Question Hour is a crucial tool used by the members of Parliament to question the Council of Ministers regarding their decisions, actions, and the functioning of their departments. During Question Hour (usually the first hour of every sitting in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha), members can ask both oral and written questions on any matter within the jurisdiction of the government. In addition to the ministers, the questions can also be asked to the private members. It has been mentioned in the Rule of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. Supplementary questions are follow-up questions asked by members of Parliament after the initial answer provided by the Minister during Question Hour. These allow for further probing and clarification on issues raised in the original question. This process enables greater scrutiny and oversight of the functioning of the Council of Ministers. Three types of Question are asked namely:- Starred Question: Require oral answer and Supplementary question can be asked. Unstarred Question: Require written answer and Supplementary question cannot be asked. Short Notice Question: Answered orally and asked on short notice of less than 10 days.
UPSC 2017Polity · Parliament
Q139. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: 1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India. 2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: A Private Member bill can be introduced by any member of the Parliament other than a minister. A bill introduced by a Minister in the Parliament is generally called a government bill. A Private member bill generally reflects the stand of the opposition party on public matters. There is less likelihood that the Parliament will adopt it. Its rejection by the House has no implication on the parliamentary confidence in the government or its resignation A 1-month notice is required before introducing the Bill. They are discussed only on Fridays in both Houses of Parliament during Private Members’ Business hours. Constitutional Amendment can be moved by Private member bill.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As of now around 14 private member’s bills have been passed since independence in Indian Parliament. Examples: The Hindu Marriage (Amendment) Bill 1956, The Orphanages & Other Charitable Homes (Supervision & Control) Bill 1960. Marine Insurance Bill 1959 etc. None have been passed in both Houses since 1970.
Exam tip:
For S1, trap lies in the phrase "not elected but only nominated", which tries to narrow the definition of "private member" to nominated MPs only. For S2, "For the first time in its history" Extreme/absolute phrase trap. Parliament has existed for decades since 1950s. Is it logical that not even one private member’s bill was ever passed before?
UPSC 2017Polity · Judicial Review
Q140. In India, Judicial Review implies:
Explanation
In general terms, judicial review refers to the power and ability of High Courts and Supreme Court to review laws or judgments to ensure that they do not violate constitutional or legal provisions.
Option (a) is correct: Primarily, Article 13, 32 and 226 forms the core of judicial review, of which Article 13 and 32 forms part of Fundamental Right. Thus, the Courts are empowered to declare a statute ultra vires the constitution and to nullify an executive action as unconstitutional if they violate constitutional provisions or alter fundamental rights. These powers of judicial review are given not to make the judiciary superior, but to ensure a system of checks and balances between the legislature and the executive on one hand, and the judiciary on the other.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
131
2017
(b) Participation of workers in the management of industries
132
2017
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
133
2017
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
134
2017
(b) 1 and 3 only
135
2017
(a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
136
2017
(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
137
2017
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
138
2017
(d) 1, 2 and 3
139
2017
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
140
2017
(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
What UPSC has tested in Polity
Parliament, Fundamental Rights, the Higher Judiciary and Local Government together account for the largest share of Polity questions in this set.
Recent papers test statements about institutions: the Governor, the President’s ordinance and pardoning powers, Lokpal, Scheduled Areas and the Speaker’s office.
Older papers lean on single-fact recall: which Article, which Amendment, which Schedule.
The 2025 paper’s Polity questions fall in Parliament, President, Governor, Constitutional Amendment, Schedules, Centre-State Relations, Local Government and non-constitutional bodies.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Polity?
This page covers 365 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Polity, asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
Which Polity chapters has UPSC asked about most?
In this set, Parliament has the most questions, followed by the Miscellaneous group, Fundamental Rights, the Higher Judiciary, Local Government, the Directive Principles and the constitutional bodies. Small chapters such as Citizenship and Judicial Review have only one question each.
How do I practise Polity PYQs chapter by chapter?
Use the Chapter filter on this page, or open a chapter link such as Preamble or Parliament. Each chapter page gives its own questions, answer key and the facts UPSC has tested, so you can finish one topic before moving to the next.
Does this page include the 2025 UPSC Prelims paper?
Yes. The 2025 paper’s Polity questions are included, and you can open them alone with the Year filter set to 2025. They cover Parliament, the President’s powers, the Governor, Schedules, Panchayats, Lokpal and Centre-State bodies.
Are cancelled or disputed UPSC questions included?
No. Questions UPSC cancelled, and questions where the available answer key is disputed, are left out so that every question here has a single correct answer with an explanation you can rely on.
