Previous Year UPSC Questions

Explanation

The Estimates Committee was set up in 1950, on the recommendation of John Mathai. It consists of 30 members, all from the Lok Sabha and it is the largest committee. These members are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its own members, according to the principles of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. The minister cannot be the members of the estimates committee. The chairman of the committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members and he is invariably from the ruling party. Its function is to examine the budget and also suggest economies of public expenditure. It also suggests an alternative policy of bringing policy of economies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: A cabinet secretary is appointed for a fixed period of time, usually two years. A Cabinet Secretary holds the responsibility of preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings.

Statement 2 is correct: The Prime Minister has direct control over the cabinet secretariat. The Cabinet Secretary is the administrative head of the secretariat. It also gives secretariat assistance to the Cabinet Committees.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Cabinet Secretariat facilitates government decision-making by providing interministerial coordination. However, the Ministry of Finance is entrusted with the allocation of financial resources to the Ministries.

Explanation

Option (b) is correct: Cluster bean commonly known as guar has traditionally been utilized in India as a vegetable and animal feed. Guar gum is widely used in the oil and gas industry particularly in hydraulic fracturing (fracking) for shale gas extraction. It acts as a thickening agent in fracking fluids, helping to carry proppants (like sand) into fractures in the shale rock to keep them open and allow gas to flow. India is one of the largest producers of guar in the world and the demand for guar gum surged due to its use in shale gas extraction especially in the United States.

Option (a),(c) and (d) are incorrect:

Guar seeds are primarily known for their gum content and not oil. It has applications in various industries (food, pharmaceuticals, textiles, etc.) but there is no widespread use of guar seed oil in the manufacture of biodegradable plastics. Traditionally guar leaves have been consumed as a vegetable but their medicinal properties particularly as antihistamines is not well-documented. Guar seeds are not a significant source of biodiesel. It is not commercially significant or widely recognized as a high-quality biodiesel source.

Explanation

The Agni-IV is an intermediate-range ballistic missile developed by India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)

Statement 1 is correct: The Agni-IV is designed as a surface-to-surface missile, capable of being launched from the ground to strike terrestrial targets. It enhances India’s strategic strike capabilities. Statements 2 is incorrect: The Agni-IV utilizes a two-stage solid propellant system, not liquid propellant. Solid propellants offer advantages such as easier handling and longer storage life, which are beneficial for ballistic missiles. Statements 3 is incorrect: The Agni-IV has a range of around 4,000 km and is capable of carrying a payload of up to one tonne, including nuclear warheads. A range of 7,500 km would classify the missile as an intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM), but the Agni-IV is categorized as an intermediate-range ballistic missile (IRBM).

Explanation

Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants, algae, and certain bacteria convert light energy into chemical energy, producing glucose and releasing oxygen. The functions of the chlorophyll, a green pigment, are related to the transformation of inefficient solar energy into useful chemical energy. During photosynthesis, plants capture light energy (free energy) and convert it into chemical energy, storing it as potential energy in the bonds of glucose molecules. This stored energy can later be used by the plant for various metabolic processes. 6H₂O + 6CO₂C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂

Explanation

Vegetative propagation is a fascinating form of asexual reproduction where new plants grow from specialized vegetative parts like stems, roots, or leaves rather than seeds.

Statement 1 is correct: Vegetative propagation is a process in which new plants are grown from the vegetative parts of the parent plant. As this method does not involve sexual reproduction, the offspring are genetically identical to the parent, creating a clonal population. This technique ensures uniformity among the progeny, making it particularly useful for preserving desirable traits in cultivated plants.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Standard methods of vegetative propagation generally do not eliminate viruses rather they often perpetuate viral infections because the new plants are exact genetic clones of the infected parent plant.

Statement 3 is correct: Unlike seed-based propagation, which is often dependent on specific seasons, methods like cuttings, layering, or tissue culture can be carried out continuously as long as the required conditions and resources are provided. Vegetative propagation can typically be practiced year-round, particularly in controlled environmental settings. This adaptability enables the consistent production of new plants.

Explanation

Transgenic crops are developed by introducing foreign genes into a plant’s genome to confer new traits, such as pest resistance or improved nutritional content.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Budding and grafting are traditional horticultural techniques used to propagate plants. In grafting, tissues from one plant are inserted into those of another so that the two sets of vascular tissues may join together. These methods do not alter the genetic makeup of the plants.

Statement 2 is correct: Cytoplasmic male sterility (CMS) refers to the complete or partial inability of plants to produce functional male gametes. Male Sterility prevents the plant from producing viable pollen, thereby rendering it incapable of self-fertilization. CMS systems are extensively used in hybrid crop production because they simplify the process of controlling male sterility, eliminating the need for manual emasculation during cross-breeding. This enhances efficiency and consistency in hybrid seed production.

Statement 3 is correct: Gene silencing refers to techniques used to suppress the expression of specific genes within an organism. In the context of transgenic crops, methods such as RNA interference (RNAi) are employed to downregulate or silence target genes, thereby conferring desired traits like pest resistance or delayed fruit ripening. One notable example of gene silencing in India is the development of Bt Cotton using RNA interference (RNAi). In Bt cotton, a gene from the soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is introduced to produce proteins that are toxic to cotton bollworm pest.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Maize is a primary source for commercial starch production. Through a wet milling process, maize kernels are separated into components such as starch, oil, protein, and fiber. The extracted starch is utilized in multiple industries, including food, paper, and textiles.

Statement 2 is correct: Maize oil, also known as corn oil, can be used as a raw material for biodiesel production. Through a chemical process called transesterification, the oil reacts with short-chain alcohols such as methanol or ethanol, using a catalyst to produce biodiesel efficiently.

Statement 3 is correct: Maize plays a significant role in the production of various alcoholic beverages. Its starch is broken down into sugars, which are subsequently fermented to produce alcohol. This process is crucial in crafting drinks like bourbon whiskey, which traditionally uses a mash containing at least 51% maize.

Explanation

Marginal standing facility (MSF) is a window for banks to borrow from the Reserve Bank of India in an emergency situation when inter-bank liquidity dries up completely. Banks borrow from the central bank by pledging government securities at a rate higher than the repo rate under liquidity adjustment facility(LAF). The MSF rate is pegged 100 basis points or 1 percentage point above the repo rate. Under MSF banks can borrow funds up to one percentage of their net demand and time liabilities (NDTL). Demand Liabilities Demand Liabilities of a bank are liabilities which are pay-able on demand. These include current deposits, demand liabilities portion of savings bank deposits, margins held against letters of credit/guarantees, cash certificates and cumulative/ recurring deposits, Demand Drafts (DDs), unclaimed deposits, credit balances in the Cash Credit account etc. Time Liabilities Time Liabilities of a bank are those which are payable otherwise than on demand. These include fixed deposits, cash certificates, cumulative and recurring deposits, time liabilities portion of savings bank deposits, staff security deposits etc. The difference between a bank’s total demand and time liabilities (deposits) and its deposits in the form of assets held by another bank is represented by the term "Net Demand and Time Liabilities".

Explanation

The animal kingdom is broadly classified into different phyla based on structural and functional characteristics.

Option (a) is correct: Arthropoda is the largest phylum in the animal kingdom, including organisms with jointed appendages, segmented bodies, and exoskeletons made of chitin. The phylum is further divided into several subphyla, two of which are:

Chelicerata (includes arachnids like mites, spiders, and scorpions) and Crustacea (includes crabs and other aquatic arthropods). The subphylum Chelicerata (e.g., spiders, scorpions) has two body regions, no antennae, four pairs of legs, and uses chelicerae for feeding, adapted to terrestrial life with book lungs. Crustacea (e.g., crabs, lobsters) has three body regions, two pairs of antennae, gills for respiration, and compound eyes, primarily adapted to aquatic habitats with specialized mandibles. Hence, the crab does not belong to the same class as the mite, spider, and scorpion.