This page lists 46 previous year UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination (General Studies Paper-I) questions on the UPSC 2010 Prelims. Choose an option to see the correct answer and the full explanation on the same page.
Showing 1–10 of 46 questions
UPSC 2010Modern History · Later Mughals and Early Modern India
Q1. What was the immediate reason for Ahmad Shah Abdali to invade India and fight the third battle of Panipat?
Explanation
Ahmad Shah Abdali invaded India because the Marathas had expelled his son, Timur Shah, from Lahore in 1758. Timur Shah was Abdali’s viceroy in Punjab, and his removal by the Marathas was seen as a direct challenge to Abdali’s authority. This greatly angered him, and he decided to take revenge. In 1760, he marched towards India to reclaim Punjab and restore his influence. This was the main reason behind the Third Battle of Panipat in 1761.
Option (b) is incorrect: Adina Beg Khan was a Mughal officer who played an important role in Punjab’s politics. However, he did not invite Abdali to invade India. In fact, he had earlier invited the Marathas to fight against Abdali’s influence in Punjab.
Option (c) is incorrect: Abdali had financial interests in India, and he did demand revenue from Mughal territories. However, this was not the main reason for his invasion. By 1760, the Mughal administration had already weakened, and the real power in North India was shifting towards the Marathas and other regional powers. Abdali’s main enemy at this time was not the Mughals but the Marathas, who had taken over Punjab. His invasion was more about reclaiming lost territory than collecting revenue.
Option (d) is incorrect: Punjab was strategically important, and Abdali did want to maintain control over it. However, his primary goal was not permanent annexation but restoring his authority after the Marathas had removed his son from Lahore.
UPSC 2010Medieval History · Early Medieval Period
Q2. Why did Buddhism start declining in India in the early medieval times? 1. Buddha was by that time considered as one of the incarnations of Vishnu and thus became a part of Vaishnavism. 2. Invading tribes from Central Asia till the time of the last Gupta king adopted Hinduism and persecuted Buddhists. 3. Kings of the Gupta dynasty were strongly opposed to Buddhism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Buddhism emerged in India around the 6th century BCE, and reached its zenith during the reign of Emperor Ashoka embraced Buddhism and instituted dharma as the state ideology. (3rd century BCE). Later, it began to decline in the 4th-6th century CE due to increasing influence of Brahmanism and was mostly replaced by Hinduism by the 12th century.
Statement 1 is correct: Buddhism declined during the entire phase of Bhakti movement absorbing various aspects of Hinduism such as Buddha’s inclusion as 9th incarnation of Vishnu thus becoming a part of Vaishnavism. This assimilation made Buddhist practices and beliefs blend into mainstream Hinduism.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Kushans, the Sakas, the Greeks, and the Parthians were some of the Central Asian tribes that invaded India. Though some tribes like the Huns adopted Hinduism during the period 200 B.C. to 300 A.D. Buddhism gained a strong foothold in the north western India. Many of the foreigners like the Indo-Greeks and the Kushanas, who invaded India during this time accepted Buddhism
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Gupta rulers gave patronage to Bhagvatism. But they were tolerant to other religions too. The Chinese pilgrims Fa Hien and Hsuan Tsang, who came to India during the reign of Chandragupta II and Harsha respectively, clearly give the impression that Buddhism was also flourishing.
UPSC 2010Geography · Solar System and Evolution of Earth
Q3. Consider the following statements: 1.On the planet Earth, the fresh water available for use amounts to about less than 1% of the total water found. 2.Of the total fresh water found on the planet Earth 95% is bound up in polar ice caps and glaciers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: About 97.5% of Earth’s water is saltwater found in oceans. The remaining 2.5% is freshwater. Most of it is locked in glaciers, ice caps, or deep underground. Only about 0.3% of total freshwater is readily available in rivers, lakes, and accessible groundwater for human use. Since 0.3% of 2.5% is less than 1% of total water, this confirms that freshwater available for use is indeed less than 1%.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Around 68.7% of all freshwater is stored in ice caps and glaciers, primarily in the Antarctic and Greenland ice sheets. The remaining freshwater is found in groundwater, rivers, and lakes. The volume of water in rivers and lakes combined is only about 0.3% of the total freshwater available.
UPSC 2010Modern History · The Advent of the Europeans in India
Q4. With reference to Pondicherry (now Puducherry), consider the following statements: 1. The first European power to occupy Pondicherry were the Portuguese. 2. The second European power to occupy Pondicherry were the French. 3. The English never occupied Pondicherry. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Pondicherry (now Puducherry), a key port town on the southeastern coast of India, witnessed the influence of multiple European powers due to its strategic importance in trade and colonial expansion.
Statement 1 is correct: The Portuguese were the first European power to occupy Pondicherry (Puducherry). They established their control in the early 16th century, setting the stage for later European involvement.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The second European power to occupy Pondicherry were the Dutch, not the French. The French later established control in 1674 and made Pondicherry their stronghold in India, but they were not the immediate successors to the Portuguese.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The English did occupy Pondicherry multiple times during their conflicts with the French. The British captured Pondicherry in 1761 and returned it to French control as part of treaty settlements.
UPSC 2010Polity · Basic Concepts
Q5. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following: 1. Fundamental Rights 2. Fundamental Duties 3. Directive Principles of the State Policy Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the government of India?
Explanation
Option (1) is incorrect: The NSAP’s primary constitutional foundation lies in the Directive Principles of State Policy, not Fundamental Rights. While it contributes to the socio-economic conditions that enhance the enjoyment of Fundamental Rights, it is not designed or implemented as a means of enforcing them.
Option (2) is incorrect: Fundamental Duties (Part IVA, Article 51A) are directed towards citizens and do not impose obligations on the state. The NSAP is not linked to the fulfillment of Fundamental Duties.
Option (3) is correct: The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) launched by the Government of India aims to provide social assistance to the elderly, disabled, and other vulnerable sections of society. It directly aligned with the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which guide the government towards social welfare under:
Article 41: The State is directed to provide public assistance in case of old age, sickness, and disablement, which is the primary aim of NSAP. Article 42: Deals with just and humane conditions of work, which is indirectly addressed through such social assistance programs. Article 46: Promotes the welfare of weaker sections, which the NSAP specifically targets.
UPSC 2010Modern History · British Expansion in India
Q6. By a regulation in 1793, the District Collector was deprived of his judicial powers and made the collecting agent only. What was the reason for such a regulation?
Explanation
The 1793 regulation was introduced as part of Lord Cornwallis’s judicial and administrative reforms during his tenure as Governor-General of India. Statement (a) is incorrect: Cornwallis’s reforms aimed at revenue efficiency, but the primary goal of depriving the District Collector of judicial powers was to ensure systemic fairness and prevent the concentration of power. Statement (b) is incorrect: The policy was not based on a racial division of duties; instead, it focused on the principle of separating powers to prevent misuse. Statement (c) is correct: Lord Cornwallis was concerned about the concentration of power in the hands of the District Collector, who held both revenue and judicial authority. To prevent inefficiency and corruption, he restructured the system, separating executive and judicial functions. Statement (d) is incorrect: While judicial work required knowledge and training, Cornwallis’s decision was primarily driven by the need to separate powers rather than concerns about the qualifications of the District Collector.
UPSC 2010Art and Culture · Indian Painting
Q7. There are only two known examples of cave paintings of the Gupta period in ancient India. One of these is paintings of Ajanta caves. Where is the other surviving example of Gupta paintings?
Explanation
Indian cave paintings from the Gupta period (4th to 6th century CE) are notable for their refined artistry and spiritual themes, particularly Buddhist iconography. These paintings, found in caves like Ajanta, depict scenes from the life of the Buddha, Jataka tales, and celestial beings with vivid colors and graceful figures.
Option (a) is correct: The Bagh Caves in modern-day Madhya Pradesh are a significant site of ancient Indian art and architecture. Like the Ajanta Caves, these caves are known for their exquisite Gupta-period paintings dating back to the 4th to 6th centuries AD. The themes of the murals include Jataka tales, depictions of Bodhisattvas, and scenes of daily life.
Option (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect:
The Ellora Caves were primarily created by the Rashtrakuta dynasty between the 5th and 10th centuries for religious purposes, with Hindu, Buddhist, and Jain caves coexisting at the site. The Lomas Rishi Caves, located in Bihar, were created by the Mauryan dynasty around the 3rd century BCE. The Nasik Caves, also known as the PandavLeni Caves, are a group of ancient rock-cut Buddhist caves located in Nashik, Maharashtra. Nasik Caves belong to the Western Kshatrapas and the Satavahanas.
UPSC 2010Geography · Climatology
Q8. A geographic area with an altitude of 400 metres has following characteristics.
Month
J
F
M
A
M
J
J
A
S
O
N
D
Average maximum temp °C
31
31
31
31
30
30
29
28
29
29
30
31
Average minimum temp °C
21
21
21
21
21
21
20
20
20
20
20
20
Rainfall (mm)
51
85
188
158
139
121
134
168
185
221
198
86
If this geographic area were to have a natural forest, which one of the following would it most likely be?
Explanation
Tropical rainforests, also known as Evergreen forests, thrive in regions receiving substantial rainfall, typically exceeding 150-200 cm annually. These forests maintain temperatures within the range of 15-30°C throughout the year, conditions that match the given data. They are found in India’s Western Ghats and Northeast, boasting diverse flora (rosewood, mahogany, rubber) and fauna (elephants, monkeys, sloths). This combination of factors creates a complex and thriving ecosystem.
UPSC 2010Geography · Climatology
Q9. A new type of El Nino called El Nino Modoki appeared in the news. In this context, consider the following statements: 1.Normal El Nino forms in the Central Pacific Ocean whereas El Nino Modoki forms in the Eastern Pacific Ocean. 2.Normal El Nino results in diminished hurricanes in the Atlantic Ocean but El Nino Modoki results in a greater number of hurricanes with greater frequency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
El Niño is a climate pattern characterized by unusually warm ocean temperatures in the eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean. El Niño Modoki is a distinct phase of El Niño with a different spatial pattern of warming in the Pacific Ocean.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Because it reverses the typical locations of El Niño and El Niño Modoki. Normal El Niño occurs in the Eastern Pacific Ocean, where sea surface temperatures be-come unusually warm, typically around the equator off the coast of South America. El Niño Modoki, on the other hand, forms in the Central Pacific Ocean, with warming concentrated between the dateline and the central Pacific, distinct from the usual location of normal El Niño.
Statement 2 is correct: During normal El Niño events, the atmospheric changes (increased wind shear and cooler waters in the Atlantic) tend to suppress hurricane formation in the Atlantic Ocean, leading to fewer hurricanes. In contrast, El Niño Modoki causes different atmospheric conditions that have been linked to a greater frequency and intensity of hurricanes in the Atlantic Ocean. The shift in warming in the Pacific Ocean results in a different pattern of atmospheric circulation that enhances hurricane formation in the Atlantic.
UPSC 2010Geography · Climatology
Q10. Which one of the following reflects back more sunlight as compared to the other three?
Explanation
The reflectivity of a surface, known as albedo, determines how much sunlight is reflected back. Surfaces with higher albedo reflect more sunlight, while those with lower albedo absorb more.
Option (c) is correct: Land covered with fresh snow has the highest albedo amongst the options given above. Snow re-flects approximately 80-90% of the sunlight that strikes it. This makes snow-covered surfaces highly reflective compared to others. Options (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect:
Sand deserts have a lower albedo, generally ranging between 30-40%. This means they absorb more sunlight and reflect less compared to snow-covered land. Paddy crop land, similar to prairie land, has a lower albedo of 22-24% due to its vegetation, which absorbs more sunlight rather than reflecting it. The albedo of these areas can change based on vegetation type, moisture levels, and the season. Prairie land, like paddy crop land, typically has a lower albedo of 20-25 % as it is covered with grasses and other vegetation that absorb sunlight rather than reflecting it.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
1
2010
(a) He wanted to avenge the expulsion by Marathas of his viceroy Timur Shah from Lahore.
2
2010
(a) 1 only
3
2010
(a) 1 only
4
2010
(a) 1 only
5
2010
(b) 3 only
6
2010
(c) Lord Cornwallis was alarmed at the extent of power concentrated in the District Collector and felt that such absolute power was undesirable in one person.
7
2010
(a) Bagh caves
8
2010
(d) Tropical rainforest
9
2010
(b) 2 only
10
2010
(c) Land covered with fresh snow
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 46 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on the UPSC 2010 Prelims, asked between 1995 to 2024. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for all subjects?
Questions on the UPSC 2010 Prelims are available for 30 years, from 1995 to 2024. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.