3,238 previous year UPSC Prelims (GS Paper-I) questions, from 1995 to 2025, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. Filter by subject, chapter or year.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 1121–1130 of 3238 questions
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UPSC 2014Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q1121. What is/are the facility/facilities the beneficiaries can get from the services of Business Correspondent (Bank Saathi) in branchless areas? 1. It enables the beneficiaries to draw their subsidies and social security benefits in their villages. 2. It enables the beneficiaries in the rural areas to make deposits and withdrawals. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Banking Correspondents (BCs) also known as Bank Saathis are individuals or entities hired by banks in India (including commercial banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), and Local Area Banks (LABs)) to provide banking services in areas with limited or no banking access. A BC acts as an agent for the bank, serving as a substitute for the bank’s physical branch.
Statement 1 is correct: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launched the Business Correspondent (BC) Model in 2006 to improve financial inclusion in India. BCs play a critical role in disbursing direct benefit transfers (DBT), including subsidies and social security payments, to beneficiaries in rural areas. This eliminates the need for beneficiaries to travel long distances to a bank branch to collect their payments.
Statement 2 is correct: BCs offer a range of basic banking services, including accepting deposits, facilitating withdrawals, and enabling other small transactions. This brings basic banking services to people who previously had limited or no access.
UPSC 2014Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q1122. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of a food chain?
Explanation
A food chain represents the transfer of energy through a series of organisms, starting from green plants (primary producers) and progressing through successive consumers. For example: Grasses Grasshopper Frog Snake Hawk/ Eagle. Each step in the food chain is referred to as a trophic level, indicating the organism’s position in the chain. Food chains begin with producers and end with top carnivores. In marine ecosystems, phytoplankton serve as primary producers. These include:
Diatoms (unicellular algae) Coccolithophores (unicellular eukaryotic protists), Cyanobacteria (blue-green algae such as Synechococcus, Prochlorococcus, Nostoc, and Spirogyra) Dinoflagellates (flagellated protists) Crustaceans, a group of arthropods that includes crabs, lobsters, shrimp, krill, and barnacles, feed on diatoms. In turn, herrings, a type of fish, consume crustaceans, completing this segment of the marine food chain.
UPSC 2014Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q1123. In the context of the Indian economy, which of the following is/are the purpose/purposes of ‘Statutory Reserve Requirements’? 1. To enable the Central Bank to control the amount of advances the banks can create. 2. To make the people’s deposits with banks safe and liquid. 3. To prevent the commercial banks from making excessive profits. 4. To force the banks to have sufficient vault cash to meet their day-to-day requirements. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Statutory Reserve Requirements, such as the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) are regulatory tools employed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to ensure the stability and liquidity of the banking system. These requirements mandate that commercial banks maintain a certain percentage of their net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) in the form of liquid asset
Statement 1 is correct: When the central bank wants to increase the money supply in the economy, it lowers the reserve ratio. Hence it enables the Central Bank to control the amount of advances the banks can create.
Statement 2 is correct: RBI requires commercial banks to keep reserves in order to ensure that banks have sufficient assets to draw on when account holders want to be paid.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Reserve requirements are de-signed as "precautionary measures" to control the economy and not to stop banks from making "excessive" profit.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Vault cash (cash held by banks in their vaults) is separate from CRR. CRR is the cash banks must hold with the RBI, not in their own vaults. While banks need sufficient vault cash for daily operations, this is a separate operational requirement, not directly enforced by the SRR.
UPSC 2014Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q1124. With reference to technology for solar power production, consider the following statements: 1. Photovoltaics is a technology that generates electricity by direct conversion of light into electricity, while ‘Solar Thermal’ is a technology that utilises the Sun’s rays to generate heat which is further used in the electricity generation process. 2. Photovoltaics-generates Alternating Current (AC), while Solar Thermal generates Direct Current (DC). 3. India has a manufacturing base for Solar Thermal technology, but not for photovoltaics. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: PV technology directly converts sunlight into electricity using semiconductor materials like silicon. When sunlight hits the PV cells, it excites electrons, generating Direct Current (DC) electricity. This is a clean and efficient method of harnessing solar energy for electricity. Solar thermal systems use solar collectors to capture the Sun’s heat. This heat is typically used to produce steam, which drives turbines connected to generators, producing electricity. Solar thermal is often used in large-scale power plants and heating systems.
Statement 2 is incorrect: PV systems initially produce Direct Current (DC), which is then converted to Alternating Current (AC) using inverters for compatibility with the electrical grid and household appliances. Solar Thermal systems generate heat, which is used to produce AC electricity through conventional turbines and generators.
Statement 3 is incorrect: India has established manufacturing capabilities for both Solar Thermal and Photovoltaic technologies. The country is expanding its PV manufacturing capacity, aiming to become self-sufficient and reduce reliance on imports.
UPSC 2014Environment and Ecology · Protected Areas for the Biodiversity Conservation
Q1125. With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. 2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities in those zones except agriculture. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Eco-Sensitive Zones are defined "as areas/zones with identified environmental resources having incomparable values which require special attention for their conservation" because of its landscape, wildlife, biodiversity, historical and natural values.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Wildlife Action Plan (2002-2016) of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) stipulates that state governments should declare land falling within 10 km of the boundaries of national parks and wildlife sanctuaries as eco-fragile zones or Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs) under the Environmental (Protection) Act, 1986 and not Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The basic aim is to regulate certain activities around National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries so as to minimise the negative impacts of such activities on the fragile ecosystem encompassing the protected area. In Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs), prohibited activities include commercial mining, polluting industries, and large hydropower projects. Regulated activities involve tree felling, hotel construction, and road widening. Permitted activities include ongoing farming, organic practices, rainwater harvesting, and use of renewable energy. Activities such as eco-tourism, education, and sustainable development can take place under the guidelines issued by MoEFCC
UPSC 2014Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q1126. Consider the following: 1. Bats2. Bears3. Rodents The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed in which of the above kinds of animals?
Explanation
Hibernation is a survival strategy employed by various animals to endure periods of reduced food availability and harsh environmental conditions, typically during winter. This state is characterized by significantly lowered metabolic rates, decreased body temperatures, and reduced physiological activities. Many bat species enter hibernation during colder months when their insect prey becomes scarce. During hibernation, bats can experience a substantial drop in body temperature and significant reduction in metabolic rate. They often hibernate communally in caves, mines, or other sheltered locations that provide stable, cold environments. Bears undergo a form of hibernation known as torpor, which is less extreme than the hibernation observed in smaller mammals. During torpor, bears experience a moderate decrease in body temperature and metabolic rate. They remain in dens throughout the winter months, surviving on stored body fat. Notably, female bears give birth during this period and are capable of nursing their cubs without leaving the den. Species such as ground squirrels and certain mice enter deep hibernation during which they significantly lower their body temperatures and metabolic rates. This state allows them to conserve energy and survive extended periods without food. Rodents often prepare for hibernation by accumulating fat reserves and creating insulated nests or burrows to protect against the cold.
UPSC 2014Environment and Ecology · Protected Areas for the Biodiversity Conservation
Q1127. The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of:
Explanation
A Protected Area is a clearly defined geographical space, recognized, dedicated and managed through legal or other effective means, to achieve the long-term conservation of nature with associated ecosystem services and cultural values. Biosphere reserves, Botanical gardens, National parks, Wildlife sanctuaries, Conseravation and Community reserve etc are examples of protected areas.
Option (a) is correct:
Biosphere reserves are legally protected regions where people and the environment can coexist while honouring each other’s needs. These areas might be terrestrial, coastal, or a combination of both. They are recognised under UNESCO’s MAB programme and nominated and established by the relevant nations. They consist of three zones: the core zone, buffer zone, and transition zone. The core zone is strictly protected, while the buffer and transition zones allow for sustainable human activities, ensuring a balance between conservation and livelihood. Unlike national parks and wildlife sanctuaries, which primarily focus on preserving wildlife, biosphere reserves encourage sustainable human activity and help integrate conservation with traditional practices. Therefore, they serve as a model for preserving biodiversity alongside the needs of local communities.
UPSC 2014Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q1128. Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth? 1. Volcanic action 2. Respiration 3. Photosynthesis 4. Decay of organic matter Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
The carbon cycle is a biogeochemical process where carbon atoms continuously move between the atmosphere, oceans, soil, and living organisms through processes like photosynthesis, respiration, decomposition, and combustion. Through photosynthesis, plants absorb atmospheric CO₂ to produce glucose, while animals release CO₂ through respiration, and when organisms die, decomposition returns their carbon to the soil and atmosphere, completing this vital planetary cycle.
Statement 1 is correct: Volcanic eruptions release CO₂ stored in Earth’s mantle into the atmosphere, contributing to the carbon cycle.
Statement 2 is correct: Respiration is the process by which organisms, including plants and animals, convert organic compounds into energy, producing CO₂ as a byproduct. This CO₂ is then released into the atmosphere.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants, algae, and some bacteria absorb CO₂ from the atmosphere and, using sunlight, convert it into glucose and oxygen. This process removes CO₂ from the atmosphere.
Statement 4 is correct: When organisms die, decomposers like bacteria and fungi break down their organic matter, resulting in the release of CO₂ back into the atmosphere through the process of decomposition.
UPSC 2014Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q1129. Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecological succession even on a bare rock, are actually a symbiotic association of
Explanation
Ecological succession is the process of change in the species structure of an ecological community over time. Types of Succession:
Primary Succession occurs on newly formed or exposed land where no previous life existed (e.g., bare rock, lava flows). Pioneer species like lichens and mosses initiate the process, gradually leading to the development of soil and a stable ecosystem. Secondary Succession happens in areas where an ecosystem previously existed but was disturbed (e.g., after a forest fire or flood). Soil is already present, and recovery occurs more quickly than in primary succession.
Option (b) is correct: Lichens are among the first organisms to colonize bare rock or barren environments, breaking down minerals to create soil and paving the way for other plants and organisms. They are unique composite organisms resulting from a symbiotic association between a fungus and a photosynthetic partner, which can be either green algae or cyanobacteria. In this partnership, the fungal component, known as the mycobiont, provides structure and protection, while the photosynthetic partner, referred to as the photobiont, contributes nutrients through photosynthesis.
UPSC 2014Modern History · Administrative Changes after 1857
Q1130. What was/were the object/objects of Queen Victoria’s Proclamation (1858)? 1. To disclaim any intention to annex the Indian States 2. To place the Indian administration under the British Crown. 3. To regulate East India Company’s trade with India Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Queen Victoria’s Proclamation (1858) ended East India Company rule, bringing India directly under British Crown control. Lord Canning became the first Viceroy and Governor-General.
Statement 1 is correct: The proclamation was read out by Lord Canning at a durbar held on November 1, 1858 at Allahabad. The proclamation put an end to the era of further expansion of the British Empire in India.
Statement 2 is correct: Queen Victoria’s proclamation of 1858 aimed at ending the rule of the company and transferring all the powers to the British crown after the 1857 revolt. It also promised non- interference in the religious affairs of the people, grant of equal protection of law and respect for ancient rights and customs of the people.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Queen Victoria’s Proclamation (1858) is aimed at improving the administrative machinery of supervision and control over the Indian government.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
1121
2014
(c) Both 1 and 2 only
1122
2014
(a) Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings
1123
2014
(b) 1 and 2 only
1124
2014
(a) 1 only
1125
2014
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1126
2014
(c) 1, 2 and 3
1127
2014
(a) Biosphere reserves
1128
2014
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
1129
2014
(b) algae and fungi
1130
2014
(a) 1 and 2 only
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 3238 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
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Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
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Questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.