This page lists 41 previous year UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination (General Studies Paper-I) questions on the UPSC 2018 Prelims. Choose an option to see the correct answer and the full explanation on the same page.
Showing 1–10 of 41 questions
UPSC 2018Art and Culture · Indian Architecture
Q1. With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements: 1. White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri. 2. Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Mughal and Nawabi architecture is marked by the use of red sandstone, white marble, and intricate brickwork. This choice reflects cultural influences seen in monuments like the Buland Darwaza, Jama Masjid, Bara Imambara, Rumi Darwaza, and the Taj Mahal.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Buland Darwaza (Gate of Magnificence) and Khankah (Sufi monastery) at Fatehpur Sikri was built by Emperor Akbar to commemorate his victory over Gujarat. It is made of red sandstone, with some white marble used for decorative inlays. White marble is not the primary material.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Bada Imambara, located in Lucknow was built by Asaf-ud-daula in 1784. It was built to give employment and revenue to the public This structure has been made by interlocking bricks without the use of mortar in its construction. Rumi Darwaza is also located in Lucknow, built by Nawab of Awadh Asaf-ud-daula. It is built using lakhauri bricks, coated with lime. It does not use red sandstone or marble. Stucco ornamentation (gajkari) was used to decorate the monuments, giving it a deep relief effect even on flat walls.
UPSC 2018Modern History · British Expansion in India
Q2. Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley?
Explanation
The Subsidiary Alliance was a diplomatic strategy introduced by Lord Wellesley in 1798, aiming to maintain British control over Indian states.
Option (c) is correct: The Subsidiary Alliance aimed to establish British paramountcy over the Indian States and to ensure their military and political subservience to the British East India Company. Securing a fixed income for the company was not the primary objective of the system. Hyderabad was the first state to come under it. The native Indian ruler had to pay for the maintenance of the British army and if he failed to make the payment, a portion of his territory was taken away and ceded to the British. They could not engage in alliances with other powers without British consent.
Exam tip:
"Subsidiary Alliance" suggests a political-military arrangement, "If I were a colonial strategist like Lord Wellesley, what would I want from this system?" Military advantage without direct cost, Justification to interfere in Indian state affairs, Diplomatic cover against global threats (like Napoleon). All yes! What I don’t need from this is: A fixed, predictable income stream, like rent or tax -- because that’s the job of land revenue systems, not military alliances.
UPSC 2018Art and Culture · Indian Painting
Q3. The well-known painting "Bani Thani" belongs to the
Explanation
Rajput regional paintings, flourishing in Rajasthan from the 16th to 19th centuries, are known for their vibrant colors, detailed depictions of court life, and themes from Hindu mythology. Styles like Mewar, Marwar, and Bundi showcase ornate portraits, landscapes, and historical events with a distinctive blend of Persian and Indian artistic traditions.
Option (d) is correct: Bani Thani paintings are a distinctive style of Indian miniature art that originated in the 18th century in the Rajput kingdom of Kishangarh, Rajasthan. Bani Thani painted by artist Nihal Chand is often referred to as the "Mona Lisa of India" and depicts a courtesan who was the muse and beloved of Raja Sawant Singh. The painting is characterized by its graceful curves, large eyes, and delicate features.
UPSC 2018Art and Culture · Indian Music
Q4. With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements: 1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna. 2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas. 3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries. 4. Annamacharya Keertanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Carnatic music is a classical music tradition of South India, characterized by its intricate ragas (melodies) and talas (rhythms), with a strong emphasis on vocal performance and improvisation. Prominent early singers include Muthuswami Dikshitar, Syama Sastri, and Tyagaraja, who significantly contributed to its development through their compositions and performances.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Tyagaraja is known for his devotional songs (Kritis) to Lord Rama and not Lord Krishna.
Statement 2 is correct: He innovated the technique of structural variations of musical lines and created new Ragas.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Annamacharya belonged to the 15th century whereas Tyagaraja belonged to the 18th century and so they are non-contemporary.
Statement 4 is correct: Annamacharya is renowned for his keertanas (devotional songs), most of which are dedicated to Lord Venkateshwara, the deity of the Tirumala Venkateswara Temple in Tirupati.
UPSC 2018Modern History · Peasant and Tribal Movements
Q5. After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/ were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government? 1. The territories called ‘Santhal Paraganas’ were created. 2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
The Santhal Rebellion (1855-56) in the Rajmahal Hills was sparked by the oppression of revenue officials, police, moneylenders, and landlords (referred to as "dikus" by the Santhals). Led by Sido and Kanhu, the Santhals revolted, declaring independence from the British. The rebellion was suppressed by 1856 after extensive military action.
Statement (1) is correct: After the Santhal Uprising (1855-56), the British created the Santhal Parganas in 1855 by carving out areas from Bhagalpur and Birbhum districts to provide the Santhals with a separate administrative region.
Statement (2) is correct: The British introduced legal restrictions on land transfers, making it illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal. This was done to prevent exploitation by moneylenders (Mahajans) and landlords (Zamindars), which had been a major cause of the rebellion.
UPSC 2018Polity · Preamble
Q6. Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?
Explanation
“If there are no laws, there is no liberty" is attributed to John Locke. Law and liberty are not opposed; rather, laws protect liberty.
Option (a) is incorrect: If there are more laws, there is less liberty: This implies that law restricts liberty, which is not always the case. Well-structured laws are meant to protect and preserve liberty by ensuring order and justice. For instance, the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005 empowers citizens by promoting transparency in governance, thereby strengthening democracy and individual freedom.
Option (b) is correct: Without laws, there would be chaos, and individual liberty would be at risk. Laws provide the framework that allows liberty to exist and be protected. They ensure that people can enjoy their freedoms without infringing on others’ rights. For instance, without laws regulating traffic, there would be chaos on the roads, leading to accidents and endangering lives.
Option (c) is incorrect: If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people: While it is important for laws to reflect the will of the people, this option is not as broadly applicable. Liberty can exist even when laws are made by representatives or through other legitimate processes.
Option (d) is incorrect: If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger: Frequent changes in law may cause instability, but it does not inherently endanger liberty. As long as changes are made transparently and for the benefit of society, liberty can be maintained.
UPSC 2018Art and Culture · Culture in India
Q7. Consider the following pairs: S.No. Tradition State 1. Chapchar Kut festival - Mizoram 2. Khongjom Parba Ballad - Manipur 3. Thang-Ta dance - Sikkim Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Pair 1 is correct: Chapchar Kut is a spring festival of Mizo people in Mizoram. It is celebrated in March after they complete their jhum cultivation (Jungle clearing).
Pair 2 is correct: The Khongjom Parba is a traditional ballad form from Manipur. It commemorates the bravery of Manipuri warriors, particularly the Battle of Khongjom fought during the Anglo-Manipur War of 1891. The ballad is performed with a combination of singing and storytelling with the accompaniment of instruments like the dholak (a type of drum).
Pair 3 is incorrect: Thang-Ta is an ancient Manipuri Martial Art dance developed from the war environment of Manipur by the Meitei community. Thang-Ta was also known as Huyen Lallong which means ‘The art of sword and the spear’.
UPSC 2018Modern History · Indian National Movement I (1905-1918)
Q8. Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha?
Explanation
Champaran Satyagraha (1917) was undertaken after Mahatma Gandhi learned about the abuses suffered by farmers, who were forced into growing indigo by British planters and estate owners. Under the Tinkathia system in Champaran, tenants were forced to grow indigo on 3/20th of their land for landlords. European planters imposed high rents and illegal fees, sparking passive resistance. This marked the beginning of Gandhian methods and the involvement of peasants in the Indian National Movement.
UPSC 2018Polity · Fundamental Rights
Q9. Consider the following statements: 1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education. 2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines. 3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) lays down the minimum qualifications for teachers, not the State Councils of Teacher Education.
Statement 2 is correct: The Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) is conducted as per NCTE guidelines and is a mandatory requirement for teaching primary classes in government and private schools.
Statement 3 is incorrect: More than 90% of teacher education institutions are privately managed, and only a small percentage are directly run by State Governments.
UPSC 2018Polity · Fundamental Rights
Q10. Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India. 2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Ninth Schedule and Article 31-B of the Indian Constitution was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights. A law passed by the Parliament and inserted into the Ninth Schedule receives protection under Article 31-B (validation of certain Acts and Regulations) and is thus exempt from judicial review. However in IR Coelho vs State of Tamil Nadu, 2007, the SC ruled that all laws (including those in the Ninth Schedule) would be open to Judicial Review if they violated the basic structure of the constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The mandate of Ninth schedule is to prevent judicial scrutiny but according to the Kesavananda Bharati Case, 1973, any violation with the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution is open to challenge in court of law. Again in IR Coelho vs State of Tamil Nadu, 2007, the SC ruled that all laws (including those in the Ninth Schedule) after 24 April 1973 would be open to Judicial Review if they violated the basic structure of the constitution.
Exam tip:
For S2, it is well known fact that "everything " in India is under judicial review. Remember this! This clearly invalidates S2.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
1
2018
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2
2018
(c) To secure a fixed income for the Company
3
2018
(d) Kishangarh school
4
2018
(b) 2 and 4 only
5
2018
(c) Both 1 and 2
6
2018
(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
7
2018
(b) 1 and 2
8
2018
(c) Joining of peasant unrest to India’s National Movement
9
2018
(b) 2 only
10
2018
(a) 1 only
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 41 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on the UPSC 2018 Prelims, asked between 1995 to 2024. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for all subjects?
Questions on the UPSC 2018 Prelims are available for 30 years, from 1995 to 2024. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.