3,238 previous year UPSC Prelims (GS Paper-I) questions, from 1995 to 2025, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. Filter by subject, chapter or year.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 1091–1100 of 3238 questions
Browse by subjectBrowse by year
UPSC 2014Environment and Ecology · Climate Change
Q1091. The scientific view is that the increase in global temperature should not exceed 2°C above the pre-industrial level. If the global temperature increases beyond 3°C above the pre-industrial level, what can be its possible impact/impacts on the world? 1. The terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source. 2. Widespread coral mortality will occur. 3. All the global wetlands will permanently disappear. 4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: If the global temperature increases beyond 3 “C above the pre-industrial level, the terrestrial biosphere will tend towards being a net carbon source. Taiga and temperate forests act as an important carbon sink that would turn into a carbon source.
Statement 2 is correct: As temperatures rise, mass coral bleaching events occur. If the temperature keeps on rising, widespread coral mortality will occur.
Statement 3 and 4 are incorrect: The temperate regions can still survive if the temperature increases. The temperate zones are where the widest seasonal changes occur. The vegetation can survive there. The weather should be warm and moist during the early stage of the growth of cereals. Therefore, the cultivation of cereals would still be possible if the temperature rises.
UPSC 2014Modern History · Indian National Movement III (1930-1947)
Q1092. The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to:
Explanation
The Radcliffe Committee was appointed by the British government in 1947 tasked with demarcating the borders between the newly independent nations of India and Pakistan. The division primarily focused on the regions of Punjab and Bengal, where large Hindu and Muslim populations coexisted. The resulting Radcliffe Line was announced on August 17, 1947, two days after India’s independence. The border division led to massive population displacement, causing widespread violence and communal riots, with millions of people migrating across the new borders, resulting in significant loss of life and property.
UPSC 2014Science and Technology · Space and Space Technology
Q1093. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Spacecraft
Purpose
1. Cassini-Huygens
Orbiting the Venus and transmitting data to the Earth
2. Messenger
Mapping and investigating
3. Voyager 1 and 2
Exploring the outer solar system
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: The Cassini-Huygens mission was a collaborative project between NASA, the European Space Agency (ESA), and the Italian Space Agency (ASI) to study Saturn and its moons, not Venus. Huygens probe landed on Titan, Saturn’s largest moon in 2005 and provided valuable data about its atmosphere and surface.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: The Messenger (MErcury Surface, Space ENvironment, GEochemistry, and Ranging) spacecraft was a NASA mission designed to study Mercury. It orbited Mercury and mapped its surface, studying its geology, and investigating its magnetic field and exosphere.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Voyager 1 and Voyager 2 spacecraft were launched by NASA in 1977 to explore the outer planets of the solar system. Voyager 1 flew by Jupiter and Saturn, providing detailed images and data about these planets and their moons. Voyager 2 visited all four outer planets:
Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune. The spacecraft are now in interstellar space, continuing to transmit data about the heliosphere and beyond.
UPSC 2014Polity · Systems of Government
Q1094. Consider the following statements: A Constitutional Government is one which: 1. Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority. 2. Places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
A constitutional government is one that operates within the framework of a Constitution. The principle of constitutionalism emphasizes limiting the power of the state to ensure it remains fair and accountable, preventing any form of autocratic rule.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority" is not characteristic of a Constitutional Government. One of the fundamental principles of a constitutional government is to protect individual rights and freedoms and not to restrict them unnecessarily in favor of state authority.
Statement 2 is correct: A constitutional government limits the authority of the state to prevent it from infringing on individual rights and freedoms. This is achieved through mechanisms such as constitutional checks and balances, the separation of powers, and the judicial review of government actions.
UPSC 2014Polity · President
Q1095. Consider the following statements: 1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business. 2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
The executive organ of government is responsible for implementing and enforcing laws and policies enacted by the legislature. It is typically headed by the President or Prime Minister and includes various government departments and agencies.
Statement 1 is correct: India follows a Parliamentary type of Government in which the President is the constitutional head of the state. He is the Executive head of India. Article 77(3) of the Indian Constitution says that the President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 77(1) of the Indian Constitution lays down all executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President.
Exam tip:
S2 aligns with Function-person/organisation/ministry match trap as its easy to manipulate to make it false. Is it PM or President?
UPSC 2014Geography · Human and Economic Geography
Q1096. Consider the following pairs:
Programme/Project
Ministry
1. Drought-Prone Area Programme
Ministry of Agriculture
2. Desert Development Programme
Ministry of Environment and Forests
3. National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas
Ministry of Rural Development
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: The Drought-Prone Area Programme (DPAP) was launched in 1973-74 to mitigate the effects of drought in drought-prone areas by promoting sustainable development. It is implemented under the Ministry of Rural Development, not the Ministry of Agriculture. The programme focuses on watershed development, soil conservation, and water harvesting to improve agricultural productivity in drought-affected regions.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: The Desert Development Programme aims to combat desertification and mitigate the adverse effects of drought in desert areas. This programme is also over-seen by the Department of Land Resources within the Ministry of Rural Development, not the Ministry of Environment and Forests. The DDP aims to minimize the adverse effects of drought and control desertification through the rejuvenation of the natural resource base in identified desert areas.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: The National Watershed Devel-opment Project for Rainfed Areas (NWDPRA) focuses on the development of rainfed regions to enhance agricultural productivity and sustainability. This project is implemented by the Department of Agriculture and Cooperation under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, not the Ministry of Rural Development.
UPSC 2014Geography · Human and Economic Geography
Q1097. What are the benefits of implementing the ‘Integrated Watershed Development Programme? 1. Prevention of soil runoff 2. Linking the country’s perennial rivers with seasonal rivers 3. Rainwater harvesting and recharge of groundwater table 4. Regeneration of natural vegetation Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Option 1 is correct: The Integrated Watershed Devel-opment Programme (IWDP) emphasizes soil conservation measures to prevent erosion and runoff. By implementing techniques such as terracing, contour plowing, and afforestation, the programme aims to maintain soil health and fertility, thereby enhancing agricultural productivity.
Option 2 is incorrect: The IWDP does not encompass river interlinking projects. Its focuses is on watershed management at the micro-level which aims to conserve soil and water within specific catchment areas. River interlinking is a separate initiative under India’s National Perspective Plan which seeks to transfer water from surplus to deficit regions through large-scale infrastructure projects.
Option 3 is correct: The IWDP emphasizes rainwater harvesting and groundwater recharge through the construction of check dams, percolation tanks, and farm ponds. These structures help capture rainwater, allowing it to percolate into the ground and recharge aquifers. This is particularly important in rainfed and arid regions where groundwater levels are critically low.
Option 4 is correct: The programme promotes afforestation and reforestation activities to restore degraded lands. Regen-erating natural vegetation not only prevents soil erosion but also improves biodiversity, enhances carbon sequestration, and supports the livelihoods of local communities through the provision of forest products.
Additional insight:
The Integrated Watershed Development Programme (IWDP) was launched in 2009-10 to restore ecological balance by conserving soil, water, and vegetation on degraded lands. In 2015 it was subsumed under Pradhan Mantri Kri-shi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY). Its objectives include:
Expanding cultivable land under assured irrigation (Har Khet Ko Pani). Improving on-farm water use efficiency (Per Drop More Crop). Promoting rainwater harvesting and groundwater recharge. Accelerating the completion of irrigation projects through the Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme (AIBP). Supporting watershed development for sustainable water conservation.
UPSC 2014Indian Economy · Money Market
Q1098. What does venture capital mean?
Explanation
Venture capital (VC) is a form of private equity and a type of financing that investors provide to startup companies and small businesses that are believed to have long-term growth potential. The majority of venture capital is often provided by wealthy individuals, investment banks, and other financial organisations. They often provide mentorship and strategic guidance in addition to funds. Investors take on higher risks with the expectation of high returns if the business succeeds. In India, firms such as Sequoia Capital, Accel Partners, and Indian Angel Network are well-known VC providers. Sectors like technology, e-commerce, and fintech have seen significant VC investments.
UPSC 2014Geography · Human and Economic Geography
Q1099. Consider the following pairs:
Region
Well-known for the production of
1. Kinnaur
Areca nut
2. Mewat
Mango
3. Coromandel
Soya bean
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Kinnaur is primarily known for its apple orchards, not for Areca nut production. The region’s agriculture is most famous for apples, along with other fruits like apricots and peaches. Areca nut is mostly produced in states like Karnataka, Kerala, and Assam, which have the ideal climatic conditions for this crop.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Mewat is not particularly famous for mango production. The region is known for agriculture and allied agro-based activities, but mango cultivation is not a primary feature of Mewat. The major mango-growing states in In-dia include Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka, Bihar, and West Bengal.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Coromandel Coast is primarily known for the production of crops like rice, pulses, sugarcane, cotton, and peanuts. It is not known for soybean production. The major states producing soybeans in India are Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh, which together contribute 89% of the total production of soybeans in the country.
UPSC 2014Geography · Human and Economic Geography
Q1100. Consider the following towns of India: 1. Bhadrachalam 2. Chanderi 3. Kancheepuram 4. Karnal Which of the above are famous for the production of traditional sarees/fabric?
Explanation
Option 1 is incorrect: Bhadrachalam is not famous for the production of traditional sarees or fabric. Instead, it is known primarily for its temples, especially the Sri Rama Temple, and its religious significance.
Option 2 is correct: Chanderi, located in Madhya Pradesh, is renowned for the production of Chanderi sarees. These sarees are famous for their fine, lightweight fabric, often woven from silk and cotton, and embellished with intricate zari work. Chanderi sarees are a hallmark of Indian textile heritage and are considered luxurious due to their delicate craftsmanship.
Option 3 is correct: Kancheepuram, in Tamil Nadu, is internationally famous for its Kanjeevaram sarees. These sarees are made of mulberry silk, renowned for their rich texture and festive quality, often highlighted by the use of gold or silver zari (thread made of precious metals). They are considered one of the finest and most durable traditional sarees in India.
Option 4 is incorrect: Karnal is not known for the production of traditional sarees or fabric. It is primarily recognized for its agriculture, particularly in the cultivation of wheat and rice, and is not associated with textile manufacturing.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
1091
2014
(b) 1 and 2 only
1092
2014
(c) delimit the boundaries between India and Pakistan
1093
2014
(b) 2 and 3 only
1094
2014
(b) 2 only
1095
2014
(a) 1 only
1096
2014
(d) None
1097
2014
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
1098
2014
(b) A long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs
1099
2014
(d) None
1100
2014
(b) 2 and 3 only
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 3238 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for all subjects?
Questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.