Environment and Ecology: UPSC Previous Year Questions (Prelims)
259 previous year UPSC Prelims Environment and Ecology questions are on this page, from 1996 to 2025, in 10 chapters. Species, Pollution, Environmental Laws and Conventions and Climate Change are the largest, and recent papers lean on statement-pairs about news items: Direct Air Capture, the Nature Restoration Law, PFAS and the Peacock tarantula. Filter by chapter to revise one area, or by year for a single paper.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 41–50 of 259 questions
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UPSC 2023Environment and Ecology · Species
Q41. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels: 1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground. 2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground. 3. They are omnivorous. How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Indian squirrels, such as the Indian Palm Squirrel, do not burrow in the ground to build nests. Instead, they construct nests in trees, crevices, or other elevated areas using materials like leaves and twigs. Burrow-making is more characteristic of rodents like rats or ground squirrels, which are not typical Indian squirrels.
Statement 2 is correct: Nuts serve as the primary food source for these creatures year-round, especially during the winter months when they are preparing for hibernation. They store nuts by burying them underground, enabling retrieval during the win-ter season.
Statement 3 is correct: Squirrels are omnivores. Their diet primarily consists of nuts and fruits, although they will also consume seeds, insects, small mammals, reptiles, eggs, and occasionally even bird chicks.
UPSC 2023Environment and Ecology · Miscellaneous
Q42. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production. Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Statement-I is correct: Although India has significant uranium deposits, its reliance on coal for electricity production is higher compared to uranium. It constitutes 55% of the nation’s energy requirements. Statement-II is incorrect: For electricity generation, uranium enrichment to a level of 3 to 5 percent of the Uranium (235) isotope is necessary. Research reactors utilise uranium enriched to a minimum concentration of 20%. Uranium enriched to at least 90% is classified as weapons-grade uranium.
UPSC 2023Environment and Ecology · Miscellaneous
Q43. Consider the following infrastructure sectors: 1. Affordable housing 2. Mass rapid transport 3. Health care 4. Renewable energy On how many of the above does the UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments?
Explanation
The UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative was introduced in 2015 as a pilot project to investigate inventive approaches to financing sustainable infrastructure endeavours in developing nations. The initiative sought to capitalise on UNOPS’ proficiency and track record in providing infrastructure solutions that align with the requirements and ambitions of individuals and communities. The S3i initiative provides initial funding for significant projects in affordable housing, renewable energy, and health infrastructure. It does not emphasise investments in mass rapid transport infrastructure.
UPSC 2022Environment and Ecology · Ecology, Ecosystem and Functions of Ecosystem
Q44. Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants? 1. Alfalfa 2. Amaranth 3. Chickpea 4. Clover 5. Purslane (Kulfa) 6. Spinach Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Alfalfa, chickpea, and clover are nitrogen-fixing plants. They belong to the leguminous family and form symbiotic associations with Rhizobium bacteria in their root nodules, aiding in nitrogen fixation and enriching soil fertility. Amaranth, purslane (Kulfa), and spinach, are non-legumi-nous plants and lack the ability to fix nitrogen as they do not form symbiotic relationships with nitrogen-fixing bacteria or develop root nodules. This natural ability of legumes like alfalfa, chickpea, and clover to fix nitrogen is extensively utilized in crop rotation practices to replenish soil nutrients and enhance agricultural productivity.
UPSC 2022Environment and Ecology · Agriculture and Environment
Q45. Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?
Explanation
Methane (CH₄) and nitrous oxide (N₂O) are the two most important GHGs after carbon dioxide (CO₂). The most rapid increase in CH₄ emission was found in natural wetlands and rice fields due to increased rice cultivation area and climate warming. N₂O emission increased substantially in all the biome types and the largest increase occurred in upland crops due to increasing air temperature and nitrogen fertilizer use. Rice paddies are considered one of the most important sources of CH₄ and N₂O emissions, which have attracted considerable attention due to their contribution to global warming.
UPSC 2022Environment and Ecology · Agriculture and Environment
Q46. "System of rice Intensification" of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in: 1. Reduced seed requirement 2. Reduced methane production 3. Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below
Explanation
The System of Rice Intensification involves cultivating rice with as much organic manure as possible, starting with young seedlings planted singly at wider spacing in a square pattern; and with intermittent irrigation that keeps the soil moist but not inundated, and frequent inter cultivation with weeder that actively aerates the soil. SRI is not a standardised, fixed technological method. It is rather a set of ideas, a methodology for comprehensively managing and conserving resources by changing the way that land, seeds, water, nutrients, and human labour are used to increase productivity from a small but well-tended number of seeds. Advantages of SRI Disadvantages of SRI Higher yields - Both grain and straw Higher labour costs in the initial years Reduced duration Difficulties in acquiring the necessary skills Reduced seed requirement Not suitable when no irrigation source available Lesser chemical inputs Less water requirement Reduced electricity consumption Less chaffy grain rain weight increased without change in grain size Higher head rice recovery Withstand cyclonic gales Cold tolerance Soil health improves through biological activity Reduced methane production
UPSC 2022Environment and Ecology · Pollution
Q47. In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: 1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m3 and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 ug/m3. 2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the period of inclement weather. 3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. 4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
The updated (2021) WHO Global Air Quality Guidelines (AQGs) provide recommendations on air quality guideline levels as well as interim targets for six key air pollutants. The guidelines focus on so-called classical pollutants, particulate matter (PM. and PM), ozone (O₃), nitrogen dioxide (NO₂), sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and carbon monoxide (CO).
Statement 1 is correct: The 24-hour ceiling mean of PM 2.5 used to be 25 micrograms but has now dropped to 15.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Ozone at ground level is formed by the reaction with sunlight (photochemical reaction) of pollutants such as nitrogen oxides (NOx) from vehicle and industry emissions and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) emitted by vehicles, solvents and industry. As a result, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of sunny weather and not during inclement weather.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Particles with a diameter of 10 m (PM10) can reach the lungs but cannot enter the bloodstream. However, particles with a diameter of 2.5 m or less can penetrate deeper into the lungs, reaching the alveoli, enter the bloodstream, and potentially cross blood-organ barriers, impacting various organs such as the brain, heart, liver, and kidneys. PM (10 microns) can reach deep into the lungs, but the more harmful PM. (2.5 microns) can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream, posing severe health risks.
Statement 4 is correct: Excessive ozone in the air can have a marked effect on human health. It causes breathing problems, triggers asthma, reduces lung function and causes lung diseases. Ozone triggers asthma because it is very irritating to the lungs and airways.
UPSC 2022Environment and Ecology · Pollution
Q48. Consider the following: 1. Carbon monoxide 2. Nitrogen oxide 3. Ozone 4. Sulphur dioxide Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are the cause(s) of acid rain?
Explanation
Normal rain has a pH of about 5.6 when pH falls below this; it is called Acid rain (pH 4.2 to 4.4). Acid rain results when Sulfur Dioxide (SO₂) & Nitrogen Oxides (NOX) react with water, oxygen & other chemicals to form Sulfuric & Nitric acids. Nitrous oxide and Sulphur dioxide cause Acid rain. The acid rain harms microorganisms in the soil; inhibits the activity of nitrogen fixation bacteria; soil acidification; ocean acidification; affects the growth of plants; food chain; kills aquatic animals; corrosion of metals & weathering of stone buildings & statues. NOx + SO₂ + Moisture + other chemicals Acid Rain (HNO₃ + H₂ SO₄)
UPSC 2022Environment and Ecology · Climate Change
Q49. Consider the following statements: 1. "The Climate Group" is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. 2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative "EP100". 3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. 4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. 5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the ’Under2 Coalition’. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Climate Group is an inter-national non-profit organization that works to accelerate climate action by building and running large networks of businesses, governments, and other organizations. It focuses on initiatives like RE100 (renewable energy), EP100 (energy productivity), and EV100 (electric vehicles).
Statement 2 is incorrect: The EP100 initiative is led by the Climate Group in partnership with the Alliance to Save Energy, not the International Energy Agency (IEA).
Statement 3 is correct: EP100 is a global initiative that encourages companies to commit to doubling their energy productivity (output per unit of energy consumed). This helps drive innovation, increase competitiveness, and reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
Statement 4 is correct: Several Indian companies, such as Mahindra & Mahindra, Godrej and Dalmia Cement, are members of EP100 and have committed to improving their energy productivity.
Statement 5 is incorrect: EP100 is a global initiative that brings together companies committed to improving energy productivity. The Under2 Coalition is a global alliance of state and regional governments committed to reducing greenhouse gas emissions. Its Secretariat is managed by Climate Group.
Exam tip:
You can try, The "NOT" approach for all statements, this tests the improbability of negating a statement--if denying its impact seems highly unlikely, the statement is plausibly true. For Example: CO₂ or O₃ are NOT released in crop burning? Absurd, unlikely.
UPSC 2022Environment and Ecology · Climate Change
Q50. "Climate Action Tracker" which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a:
Explanation
Option (a) is correct: The Climate Action Tracker (CAT) is an independent scientific project that monitors government climate action and measures it against the globally agreed Paris Agreement aim of "holding warming well below 2°C, and pursuing efforts to limit warming to 1.5°C." It is a collaboration between Climate Analytics and the New Climate Institute. CAT has been providing assessments since 2009. It evaluates countries’ emission reduction pledges, policies, and their impact on global warming. Options (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect:
The Climate Action Tracker is neither a part of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) nor the UNFCCC. The IPCC is a separate body that assesses scientific, technical, and socio-economic information related to climate change. The UNFCCC is an international treaty that provides the framework for global climate negotiations. The Climate Action Tracker is not funded or promoted by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) or the World Bank. It is an independent initiative run by research organizations.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
41
2023
(b) Only two
42
2023
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
43
2023
(c) Only three
44
2022
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
45
2022
(b) Rice
46
2022
(d) 1, 2 and 3
47
2022
(b) 1 and 4 only
48
2022
(b) 2 and 4 only
49
2022
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
50
2022
(a) Database created by coalition of research organisations
What UPSC has tested in Environment and Ecology
Species questions ask for classification and habitat: which is an insect, a filter feeder, or not a bird, and where an animal is found.
Law and convention questions ask which body or instrument covers what, such as the Wildlife Protection Act’s schedules, the e-Waste Rules and the Ramsar Convention.
Climate questions in 2025 covered Article 6 of the Paris Agreement, COP28, Direct Air Capture and wet-bulb temperatures.
Protected-area questions combine locations with distinctive features, such as the swamp park of Keibul Lamjao and Critical Tiger Habitats.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Environment and Ecology?
This page covers 259 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Environment and Ecology, asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
Which Environment chapters have the most questions?
Species has the most with 43 questions, followed by Pollution and Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies with 39 each, and Climate Change with 30. Environmental Organisations and Miscellaneous are the smallest.
How can I revise Environment and Ecology using these questions?
Take a chapter at a time with the Chapter filter, attempt the questions and read the facts UPSC has tested. Revise Species and Protected Areas with a map and a list of national parks at hand.
Are the 2025 Environment questions included?
Yes. The 2025 paper’s Environment questions on activated carbon, cement emissions, COP28, Article 6, Direct Air Capture, the Gooty tarantula, plastics and the Nature Restoration Law are included with full explanations.