Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies: UPSC Previous Year Questions (Environment and Ecology)
39 previous year UPSC Prelims questions on environmental laws and policies are on this page, from 2011 to 2025. UPSC asks which Act or rule says what: wildlife schedules, the Environment Protection Act, e-waste and solid waste rules, compensatory afforestation, and recent foreign laws such as the Nature Restoration Law. The explanations quote the provision that decides the answer.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
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UPSC 2025Environment and Ecology · Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies
Q1. Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?
Explanation
The European Union has introduced the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to address climate change and the loss of biodiversity. This law requires member countries to meet specific targets for restoring damaged ecosystems on both land and sea, forming a central part of the EU’s environmental strategy. Its goal is to rejuvenate nature throughout Europe, benefiting wildlife, the climate, and communities. If properly enforced, the law could have a transformative impact. It is now essential for both the European Parliament and EU member nations to approve and promptly implement the legislation.
Exam tip:
The word "enacted" implies legislative authority -- only bodies with law-making power can do this. Only the EU has the jurisdiction and institutional setup to actually enact a law like the Nature Restoration Law (NRL).
UPSC 2024Environment and Ecology · Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies
Q2. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the "vermin" category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. Statement-II: The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Note: Vermin category listed in Schedule V of the Wild-life Protection Act, 1972 has been removed after the Wildlife Protection Amendment Act 2022, as now there are only 4 schedules in WPA. Hence the answer is subject to considerations made by the Commission.
Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the "vermin" category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 due to its destructive tendencies towards fruit farms.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Bats are the only flying mammals in the world, and the Indian Flying Fox is one of the largest. The species, Pteropus giganteus, also called the Great Indian Fruit Bat, eats fruits, feeding on the juice, and helps in seed dispersion and pollination, making them an integral part of the ecosystem.
Additional insight:
The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, is an important environmental legislation in India aimed at protecting wildlife, conserving biodiversity, and regulating the trade of wild animals and their products. Some key changes done through Wild life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022 are:
Aligned the Act with the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES). Reduced the number of schedules for animals from six to four. The Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022 removed the schedule listing vermin species from the original Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. Previously, Schedule V of the Act designated certain species as vermin, allowing them to be hunted freely. The 2022 Amendment streamlined the schedules, eliminating the separate vermin category.
UPSC 2024Environment and Ecology · Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies
Q3. According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions?
Explanation
Emissions that lead to high concentrations of SO₂ generally also lead to the formation of other SOx. The largest sources of SO₂ emissions are from fossil fuel combustion at power plants and other industrial facilities. EPA’s national ambient air quality standards for SO₂ are designed to protect against exposure to the entire group of sulfur oxides (SOx). SO₂ is the component of greatest concern and is used as the indicator for the larger group of gaseous sulfur oxides (SOx). Other gaseous SOx (such as SO₃) are found in the atmosphere at concentrations much lower than SO₂.
UPSC 2024Environment and Ecology · Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies
Q4. Consider the following statements: Statement I: India does not import apples from the United States of America. Statement II: In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Statement-I is incorrect: Apples are one of the major imports from the USA. After India removed "retaliatory import duty" on US apples in September, imports of American apples have surged 40 times in three months, while traders are hopeful of regaining market share. In 2017-18, the import of US apples was a record of over 7 million boxes, which dropped to 50,000 boxes in the 2022-23. Statement-II is correct: In India, the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, prohibits import, manufacture, use or sale of GM food without FSSAI’s approval.
Additional insight:
Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is a statutory body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 (FSSA). It functions under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India and is responsible for ensuring food safety and regulating food standards in India.
Exam tip:
For S1, "Import no apple from USA" is too extreme to be true. Even when someone brought a kg apple from USA, this statement will becomes false, hence option C is correct.
UPSC 2022Environment and Ecology · Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies
Q5. Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
Explanation
Central Ground Water Authority has been constituted under Section 3 (3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate and control development and management of groundwater resources in the country. Central Ground Water Authority takes care of regulation and control, management and development of groundwater in the country and issues necessary regulatory directions for the purpose. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was enacted in the aftermath of Bhopal Gas Tragedy (1984) for protecting, improving environment & reducing pollution. The Act authorises the central government to control & reduce pollution from all sources. It also provides procedures for setting standards of emission or discharge of environmental pollutants.
Additional insight:
Organization Affiliated Ministry/Department Key Responsibilities Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Devel-opment & Ganga Rejuvenation Management, exploration, monitoring, assessment, augmentation, and regulation of groundwater resources in India. National Water Development Agency (NWDA) Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Devel-opment & Ganga Rejuvenation Conducts water balance and feasibility studies, prepares reports for river interlinking projects, and supports the National Perspective Plan (NPP) for water resource development. Central Water Com-mission (CWC) Ministry of Jal Shakti Technical organization responsible for water resource planning, flood forecasting, inter-state river disputes resolution, and dam safety.
UPSC 2022Environment and Ecology · Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies
Q6. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements: 1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government. 2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. 3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: As per Section 39 of Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, every Wild Animal shall be the property of the State Government, and, where such animal is hunted in a sanctuary or National Park declared by the Central Government, such animal or any animal article, trophy, uncured trophy or meat [derived from such animal, or any vehicle, vessel, weapon, trap or tool used in such hunting] shall be the property of the Central Government.
Statement 2 is correct: The law governing the subject of wild-life, the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, provides for equal protection for wild animals irrespective of where they are found. It does not discriminate between wild animals found in protected areas and outside.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Mere apprehension or fear that a wild animal could endanger human life is not a ground for capture or killing. As per Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, only if the wild animal becomes a danger to human life or is deceased or disabled beyond recovery can it be allowed to be captured or killed by the competent authority, (Chief Wildlife Warden of the State).
Exam tip:
For S3, Apprehension" = fear or suspicion, not actual harm. So, even if the animal hasn’t attacked or shown aggression, just fearing it might is being considered enough to kill/capture it. That sounds too extreme and illogical, hence probably false.
UPSC 2020Environment and Ecology · Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies
Q7. If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what is the implication?
Explanation
The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 has six schedules. Schedule VI mandates, ‘no person is allowed to cultivate a specified plant mentioned in schedule 6, except with a licence granted by the Chief WildLife Warden’. The plants mentioned in the sixth schedule includes:
Beddomes Cycad Blue Vanda Kuth Ladies slipper orchids Pitcher plant Red Vanda
Additional insight:
The Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022 has reduced the total number of schedules to four by - Reducing the number of schedules for specially protected animals to two (one for greater protection level), The Amendment has removed the schedule for vermin species, and The Amendment has inserted a new schedule for specimens listed in the Appendices under Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES). Appendix I of CITES includes the world’s most endangered plants and animals.
UPSC 2020Environment and Ecology · Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies
Q8. Steel slag can be the material for which of the following? 1. Construction of base road 2. Improvement of agricultural soil 3. Production of cement Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Steel Slag, a by-product of steel making, is produced during the separation of the molten steel from impurities in steel-making furnaces. The slag occurs as a molten liquid melt and is a complex solution of silicates and oxides that solidi-fies upon cooling.
Statement 1 is correct: Steel slag is widely used as a base course material in road construction, providing a strong and durable foundation beneath asphalt roads, tracks, and paved surfaces. Its high strength, resistance to deformation, and excellent drainage properties enhance pavement longevity.
Statement 2 is correct: Steel slag can be used in the agricultural sector due to its ability to correct soil acidity. In fact, developed countries like Japan, the USA have taken the lead in making fertilisers using steel-making slag.
Statement 3 is correct: Additionally, it is utilized in the production of Portland slag cement (PSC), where it is blended with ordinary Portland cement to improve durability and resistance to chemical attacks. This not only enhances cement quality but also promotes sustainable construction by recycling industrial byproducts.
UPSC 2020Environment and Ecology · Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies
Q9. In rural road construction, the use of which of the following is preferred for ensuring environmental sustainability or to reduce carbon footprint? 1. Copper slag 2. Cold mix asphalt technology 3. Geotextiles 4. Hot mix asphalt technology 5. Portland cement Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Option 1 is correct: Copper slag is a by-product obtained during smelting and refining of copper. The use of copper slag in cement and concrete provides potential environmental as well as economic benefits.
Option 2 is correct: Cold mix asphalt is produced by mixing unheated mineral aggregate with either emulsified bitumen or foamed bitumen. It is suitable for light to medium trafficked roads when used in base and surface courses.
Option 3 is correct: The Government has allowed the use of coir based geotextiles for construction of rural roads under the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana in 2020. Options 4 and 5 are incorrect: Hot Mix Asphalt (HMA) is a combination of approximately 95% stone, sand, or gravel bound together by asphalt cement, a product of crude oil. The wide use of hot mix technology leads to environmental pollution as these plants emit a huge amount of greenhouse gases. Portland cement is a major CO₂ emitter.
UPSC 2019Environment and Ecology · Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies
Q10. Consider the following statements: 1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown in forest areas. 2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce. 3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian Forest Act, 1927, was amended in 2017 to exclude bamboo grown on non-forest land from the definition of "tree," thereby allowing its free cultivation and transportation. However, this amendment does not grant forest dwellers the right to fell bamboo grown on forest areas. Bamboo in forest areas is still regulated under forest laws.
Statement 2 is correct: The Forest Rights Act (FRA) of 2006 recognizes bamboo as a minor forest produce (MFP).
Statement 3 is correct: The FRA, 2006, grants forest dwellers the right to own, collect, use, and dispose of minor forest produce (MFP). This includes bamboo, tendu leaves, honey, and other non-timber forest products.
Additional insight:
The National Bamboo Mission (NBM) in India, initiated by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, seeks to enhance the bamboo sector’s growth. It aims to expand bamboo plantations, improve post-harvest management, promote product development, and rejuvenate the industry, supporting nurseries, cultivation, and processing units.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
1
2025
(a) The European Union
2
2024
(c) Statement -I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
3
2024
(d) Power plants using fossil fuels
4
2024
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
5
2022
(c) Central Ground Water Authority
6
2022
(a) 1 and 2
7
2020
(a) A licence is required to cultivate that plant.
8
2020
(d) 1, 2 and 3
9
2020
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
10
2019
(b) 2 and 3 only
What UPSC has tested in Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies
The European Union has enacted the Nature Restoration Law to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss.
Extended producer responsibility was introduced in India in the e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011.
The Central Ground Water Authority was constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
If a plant species is placed under Schedule VI of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, its cultivation requires a licence.
The Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 provide for waste segregation at source.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies?
This page covers 39 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies (Environment and Ecology), asked from 2011 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
Which organisation has enacted the Nature Restoration Law?
The European Union. Adopted in 2024, the law sets binding targets to restore degraded ecosystems across member States, with a target of restoring at least 20 percent of EU land and sea areas by 2030.
What is extended producer responsibility?
A policy that makes producers responsible for the collection and recycling of products at end of life. In India it was introduced in the e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011, and later extended to plastics and batteries.
What does Schedule VI of the Wildlife Protection Act cover?
Specified plants. Cultivation of, and trade in, plants listed in Schedule VI is prohibited unless a licence is obtained from the competent authority, which is how the Act protects endangered plant species.
