Environment and Ecology: UPSC Previous Year Questions (Prelims)
259 previous year UPSC Prelims Environment and Ecology questions are on this page, from 1996 to 2025, in 10 chapters. Species, Pollution, Environmental Laws and Conventions and Climate Change are the largest, and recent papers lean on statement-pairs about news items: Direct Air Capture, the Nature Restoration Law, PFAS and the Peacock tarantula. Filter by chapter to revise one area, or by year for a single paper.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 21–30 of 259 questions
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UPSC 2024Environment and Ecology · Species
Q21. Consider the following: 1. Carabid beetles 2. Centipedes 3. Flies 4. Termites 5. Wasps Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms?
Explanation
Many animals are predators, parasites or parasitoids, using other animals as food. They use a great diversity of hunting strategies and behaviours to capture or feed on their prey. Invertebrate predators, parasites and parasitoids play an important role in keeping many animal populations under control. Parasitoid is an insect whose larvae feed and develop within or on the bodies of other arthropods. Each parasitoid larva develops on a single individual and eventually kills that host. Most parasitoids are wasps, but some flies and a small number of beetles (carabid beetles), moths, lacewings, and even one caddisfly species have evolved to be parasitoids. Parasitoids alone number about 68,000 named species, and most have yet to be named and described. Predator: They are organisms that capture and eat another (the prey). This act is called predation. The predatory invertebrates include scorpions, centipedes, predatory mites, predatory snails and slugs, nematodes and planarian worms. Detritivores: Termites are detritivores that eat dead and decaying organic matter like logs of wood in a forest. They form an important link in the cycling of nutrients in the forests by breaking down wood and organic residues on the ground
UPSC 2024Environment and Ecology · Species
Q22. Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree?
Explanation
The banyan fig tree Ficus microcarpa is famous for its aerial roots, which sprout from branches and eventually reach the soil. Aerial roots are roots above the ground that are found in diverse plant species like mangroves, banyan figs and orchids. The tree also has a unique relationship with a wasp that has co-evolved with it and is the only insect that can pollinate it. Figs are known to sustain at least 1,200 bird and mammal species. Fig trees were among the earliest domesticated crops and appear as sacred symbols in Hinduism, Buddhism and other spiritual traditions.
UPSC 2024Environment and Ecology · Species
Q23. Consider the following: 1. Butterflies 2. Fish 3. Frogs How many of the above have poisonous species among them?
Explanation
Butterflies: Hybrid Heliconius butterflies are poisonous in nature. In nature, these butterflies are rare. Heliconius melpomene and Heliconius cydno are both highly poisonous, having evolved to produce their own cyanide, and predators have learned exactly what both of these toxic insects look like. Fish: "Venomous" fish are those that can inject their toxic venom into victims, whereas "poisonous" fish are those that cause toxic symptoms only if they are eaten. For example: Lionfish, red-bel-lied piranha etc. Frogs: Frogs are amphibians which can survive both on land and water. Some of them can be poisonous also. Poison dart frogs are small, brightly colored amphibians that live on tropical rainforest floors across Central and South America. Poison dart frogs are named for the toxins they secrete from their skin, which have traditionally been used to tips of hunters’ weapons. For example, the Embera and Noanama Indigenous people in western Colombia have used the skin of golden poison frogs (Phyllobates terribilis) to tip blowgun darts for hundreds of years.
UPSC 2024Environment and Ecology · Species
Q24. Consider the following pairs:
Country
Animal Found in its Natural Habitat
1. Brazil
Indri
2. Indonesia
Elk
3. Madagascar
Bonobo
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Explanation
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: The Indri is endemic to the island country of Madagascar, specifically inhabiting the eastern rainforests. The unique geographical features and climate of Madagascar have facilitated the evolution of numerous species found nowhere else on Earth, including the Indri.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Elk is the largest and most advanced subspecies of red deer, found in North America and in the high mountains of Central Asia. It is a member of the deer family. Recent genetic studies suggest that the "red deer" may have three species:
European red deer.
Tibetan-West Chinese red deer.
Elk.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Bonobos and chimpanzees look very similar and both share 98.7% of their DNA with humans--making the two species our closest living relatives. Bonobos are usually a bit smaller, leaner, and darker than chimpanzees. They are found only in the Democratic Republic of Congo. Their discontinuous range extends from the Lualaba River in the east to the Kasai/Sankuru Rivers in the south and as far as the Congo River in the west and around Lake Tumba/Lake Mai-Ndombe.
UPSC 2024Environment and Ecology · Species
Q25. Consider the following statements: 1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season. 2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar. 3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Both males and females of the lions are polygamous and breed throughout the year, but females are usually restricted to one or two adult males of their pride. In captivity, lions often breed every year, but in the wild, they usually breed no more than once in two years. Females are receptive to mating for three or four days within a widely variable reproductive cycle.
Statement 2 is correct: There are four big cats that can roar: lion, tiger, leopard and jaguar - all of which belong to the genus Panthera. In these species, the epihyal bone, part of the voice box, is replaced by a ligament. This can be stretched, creating a larger sound-producing passage and thus a wider range of pitch. The bones of the cheetah’s voice box form a fixed structure, with divided vocal cords that vibrate with both in and out breaths. This structure is the same for all the ’small’ cats. While this design enables these cats to purr continuously, it limits the range of other sounds and prevents them from being able to roar.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Leopards are known for their solitary nature and impressive hunting abilities. They are skilled predators that primarily hunt at night, using their incredible agility and stealth to catch a variety of prey. Leopards are considered opportunistic hunters, adapting and targeting different species based on availability and their specific habitat. To avoid competition and conflicts, leopards establish their own territories, marking them with scent and claw marks on trees. Male leopards will fiercely defend their territories if they overlap with other males.
Exam tip:
For S3, By observed logic: Even Dogs and cats mark their territories then why wouldn’t leopard? Unlikely hence false. Gives option A as correct.
UPSC 2024Environment and Ecology · Miscellaneous
Q26. Consider the following materials: 1. Agricultural residues 2. Corn grain 3. Wastewater treatment sludge 4. Wood mill waste Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel?
Explanation
Sustainable aviation fuel (SAF), hydrogen and electric all have a role to play in the decarbonization of aviation. SAF is vitally important as it can address decarbonization of fuel over its lifecycle, and this is now available to be used in all turbine engines including in mid and long-range aircraft. Therefore, understanding the feedstock landscape as well as the technology pathways is integral to maximising the production and supply of SAF. The production of SAF starts with one of five main families of raw materials:
Corn grain Oil seeds Algae Other fats, oils, and greases Agricultural residues Forestry residues Wood mill waste Municipal solid waste streams Wet wastes (manures, wastewater treatment sludge) Dedicated energy crops.
Exam tip:
You can try, The "NOT" approach for all statements, this tests the improbability of negating a statement--if denying its impact seems highly unlikely, the statement is plausibly true. For Example: Agri reside or mill waste or sludge are NOT used in fuel manufacturing? unlikely.
UPSC 2024Environment and Ecology · Miscellaneous
Q27. Consider the following: 1. Battery storage 2. Biomass generators 3. Fuel cells 4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units How many of the above are considered "Distributed Energy Re-sources"?
Explanation
Distributed energy resources, or DERs, are small-scale energy systems that power a nearby location. DERs can be connected to electric grids or isolated, with energy flowing only to specific sites or functions. DERs include both energy generation technologies and energy storage systems. When energy generation occurs through distributed energy re-sources, it is referred to as distributed generation. Examples of distributed energy resources that can be installed include:
Roof top solar photovoltaic units Wind generating units Battery storage Batteries in electric vehicles used to export power back to the grid Combined heat and power units, or tri-generation units that also utilise waste heat to provide cooling Biomass generators, which are fuelled with waste gas or industrial and agricultural by-products. Open and closed cycle gas turbines Reciprocating engines (diesel, oil) Hydro and mini-hydro schemes Fuel cells.
UPSC 2023Environment and Ecology · Biodiversity
Q28. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India. Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Marsupials are a group of mammals commonly referred to as pouched mammals, such as kangaroos and wallabies. These animals are characterized by giving birth to underdeveloped young, which then continue their development in the mother’s pouch (marsupium). They give live birth, but they do not have long gestation times like placental mammals. The pouch provides protection and access to nourishment during this critical growth stage. Statement-I is correct: Marsupials can be observed in regions spanning Australia, Papua New Guinea, and South America. They are not naturally found in India. Examples of marsupials include kangaroos, wallabies, wombats, opossums, bandicoots, and koalas. Statement-II is incorrect: These creatures predominantly inhabit arid and semi-arid areas, and they are not restricted solely to montane grasslands. Marsupials are highly adaptable and thrive in a variety of habitats, including forests, deserts, grasslands. Additionally, they coexist with predators like dingoes, eagles, and foxes in their natural environments.
Exam tip:
"ONLY’ is strong phrase. Also, again use observed logic:
Kangaroos are marsupials, found in Australia, is Australia montane grassland? No!, hence S2 is likely false.
UPSC 2023Environment and Ecology · Biodiversity
Q29. Consider the following fauna: 1. Lion-tailed Macaque 2. Malabar Civet 3. Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?
Explanation
Option 1 is incorrect: Lion-tailed Macaque, also referred to as the wanderoo, inhabits the upper canopy of tropical evergreen rainforests and monsoon forests across various elevations. This species is endemic to the Western Ghats. They are diurnal which means it is active during the day and not nocturnal. IUCN Red List: Endangered Option 2 is correct: Malabar Civet is endemic to the Western Ghats of India. It is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List. The Malabar civet is considered nocturnal and so elusive that little is known about its biology and ecology apart from habitat use. IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered Option 3 is incorrect: The Sambar, a large deer native to the Indian subcontinent and Southeast Asia, is crepuscular, active during twilight (morning and evening), and occasionally after sunset. Males are mostly solitary while females form small herds of up to 16 individuals. IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
UPSC 2023Environment and Ecology · Biodiversity
Q30. Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?
Explanation
The waggle dance is a unique form of communication performed by honey bees (Apis mellifera) to convey information about the direction and distance of food sources, water, or potential nesting sites to other members of their hive. Worker honeybees, all of which are females, constitute the only bees typically observed flying outside the hive by the general populace. Bees perform two distinct types of dances: The Round Dance and the Tail-wagging or Waggle Dance. The waggle dance of honeybees has long been recognized as a behaviour that communicates in-formation about resource location from a foraging worker to her nest mates.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
21
2024
(b) Only three
22
2024
(a) Fig
23
2024
(c) All three
24
2024
(d) None
25
2024
(a) 1 and 2 only
26
2024
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
27
2024
(d) All four
28
2023
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
29
2023
(a) Only one
30
2023
(c) Honey Bees
What UPSC has tested in Environment and Ecology
Species questions ask for classification and habitat: which is an insect, a filter feeder, or not a bird, and where an animal is found.
Law and convention questions ask which body or instrument covers what, such as the Wildlife Protection Act’s schedules, the e-Waste Rules and the Ramsar Convention.
Climate questions in 2025 covered Article 6 of the Paris Agreement, COP28, Direct Air Capture and wet-bulb temperatures.
Protected-area questions combine locations with distinctive features, such as the swamp park of Keibul Lamjao and Critical Tiger Habitats.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Environment and Ecology?
This page covers 259 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Environment and Ecology, asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
Which Environment chapters have the most questions?
Species has the most with 43 questions, followed by Pollution and Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies with 39 each, and Climate Change with 30. Environmental Organisations and Miscellaneous are the smallest.
How can I revise Environment and Ecology using these questions?
Take a chapter at a time with the Chapter filter, attempt the questions and read the facts UPSC has tested. Revise Species and Protected Areas with a map and a list of national parks at hand.
Are the 2025 Environment questions included?
Yes. The 2025 paper’s Environment questions on activated carbon, cement emissions, COP28, Article 6, Direct Air Capture, the Gooty tarantula, plastics and the Nature Restoration Law are included with full explanations.