UPSC 2022 Environment and Ecology Questions with Answers
14 previous year UPSC Prelims questions on Environment and Ecology in the UPSC 2022 Prelims. Choose an option to see the answer and explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 1–10 of 14 questions
Browse Environment and Ecology chapters
UPSC 2022Environment and Ecology · Ecology, Ecosystem and Functions of Ecosystem
Q1. Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants? 1. Alfalfa 2. Amaranth 3. Chickpea 4. Clover 5. Purslane (Kulfa) 6. Spinach Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Alfalfa, chickpea, and clover are nitrogen-fixing plants. They belong to the leguminous family and form symbiotic associations with Rhizobium bacteria in their root nodules, aiding in nitrogen fixation and enriching soil fertility. Amaranth, purslane (Kulfa), and spinach, are non-legumi-nous plants and lack the ability to fix nitrogen as they do not form symbiotic relationships with nitrogen-fixing bacteria or develop root nodules. This natural ability of legumes like alfalfa, chickpea, and clover to fix nitrogen is extensively utilized in crop rotation practices to replenish soil nutrients and enhance agricultural productivity.
UPSC 2022Environment and Ecology · Agriculture and Environment
Q2. Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?
Explanation
Methane (CH₄) and nitrous oxide (N₂O) are the two most important GHGs after carbon dioxide (CO₂). The most rapid increase in CH₄ emission was found in natural wetlands and rice fields due to increased rice cultivation area and climate warming. N₂O emission increased substantially in all the biome types and the largest increase occurred in upland crops due to increasing air temperature and nitrogen fertilizer use. Rice paddies are considered one of the most important sources of CH₄ and N₂O emissions, which have attracted considerable attention due to their contribution to global warming.
UPSC 2022Environment and Ecology · Agriculture and Environment
Q3. "System of rice Intensification" of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in: 1. Reduced seed requirement 2. Reduced methane production 3. Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below
Explanation
The System of Rice Intensification involves cultivating rice with as much organic manure as possible, starting with young seedlings planted singly at wider spacing in a square pattern; and with intermittent irrigation that keeps the soil moist but not inundated, and frequent inter cultivation with weeder that actively aerates the soil. SRI is not a standardised, fixed technological method. It is rather a set of ideas, a methodology for comprehensively managing and conserving resources by changing the way that land, seeds, water, nutrients, and human labour are used to increase productivity from a small but well-tended number of seeds. Advantages of SRI Disadvantages of SRI Higher yields - Both grain and straw Higher labour costs in the initial years Reduced duration Difficulties in acquiring the necessary skills Reduced seed requirement Not suitable when no irrigation source available Lesser chemical inputs Less water requirement Reduced electricity consumption Less chaffy grain rain weight increased without change in grain size Higher head rice recovery Withstand cyclonic gales Cold tolerance Soil health improves through biological activity Reduced methane production
UPSC 2022Environment and Ecology · Pollution
Q4. In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: 1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m3 and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 ug/m3. 2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the period of inclement weather. 3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. 4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
The updated (2021) WHO Global Air Quality Guidelines (AQGs) provide recommendations on air quality guideline levels as well as interim targets for six key air pollutants. The guidelines focus on so-called classical pollutants, particulate matter (PM. and PM), ozone (O₃), nitrogen dioxide (NO₂), sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and carbon monoxide (CO).
Statement 1 is correct: The 24-hour ceiling mean of PM 2.5 used to be 25 micrograms but has now dropped to 15.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Ozone at ground level is formed by the reaction with sunlight (photochemical reaction) of pollutants such as nitrogen oxides (NOx) from vehicle and industry emissions and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) emitted by vehicles, solvents and industry. As a result, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of sunny weather and not during inclement weather.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Particles with a diameter of 10 m (PM10) can reach the lungs but cannot enter the bloodstream. However, particles with a diameter of 2.5 m or less can penetrate deeper into the lungs, reaching the alveoli, enter the bloodstream, and potentially cross blood-organ barriers, impacting various organs such as the brain, heart, liver, and kidneys. PM (10 microns) can reach deep into the lungs, but the more harmful PM. (2.5 microns) can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream, posing severe health risks.
Statement 4 is correct: Excessive ozone in the air can have a marked effect on human health. It causes breathing problems, triggers asthma, reduces lung function and causes lung diseases. Ozone triggers asthma because it is very irritating to the lungs and airways.
UPSC 2022Environment and Ecology · Pollution
Q5. Consider the following: 1. Carbon monoxide 2. Nitrogen oxide 3. Ozone 4. Sulphur dioxide Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are the cause(s) of acid rain?
Explanation
Normal rain has a pH of about 5.6 when pH falls below this; it is called Acid rain (pH 4.2 to 4.4). Acid rain results when Sulfur Dioxide (SO₂) & Nitrogen Oxides (NOX) react with water, oxygen & other chemicals to form Sulfuric & Nitric acids. Nitrous oxide and Sulphur dioxide cause Acid rain. The acid rain harms microorganisms in the soil; inhibits the activity of nitrogen fixation bacteria; soil acidification; ocean acidification; affects the growth of plants; food chain; kills aquatic animals; corrosion of metals & weathering of stone buildings & statues. NOx + SO₂ + Moisture + other chemicals Acid Rain (HNO₃ + H₂ SO₄)
UPSC 2022Environment and Ecology · Climate Change
Q6. Consider the following statements: 1. "The Climate Group" is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. 2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative "EP100". 3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. 4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. 5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the ’Under2 Coalition’. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Climate Group is an inter-national non-profit organization that works to accelerate climate action by building and running large networks of businesses, governments, and other organizations. It focuses on initiatives like RE100 (renewable energy), EP100 (energy productivity), and EV100 (electric vehicles).
Statement 2 is incorrect: The EP100 initiative is led by the Climate Group in partnership with the Alliance to Save Energy, not the International Energy Agency (IEA).
Statement 3 is correct: EP100 is a global initiative that encourages companies to commit to doubling their energy productivity (output per unit of energy consumed). This helps drive innovation, increase competitiveness, and reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
Statement 4 is correct: Several Indian companies, such as Mahindra & Mahindra, Godrej and Dalmia Cement, are members of EP100 and have committed to improving their energy productivity.
Statement 5 is incorrect: EP100 is a global initiative that brings together companies committed to improving energy productivity. The Under2 Coalition is a global alliance of state and regional governments committed to reducing greenhouse gas emissions. Its Secretariat is managed by Climate Group.
Exam tip:
You can try, The "NOT" approach for all statements, this tests the improbability of negating a statement--if denying its impact seems highly unlikely, the statement is plausibly true. For Example: CO₂ or O₃ are NOT released in crop burning? Absurd, unlikely.
UPSC 2022Environment and Ecology · Climate Change
Q7. "Climate Action Tracker" which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a:
Explanation
Option (a) is correct: The Climate Action Tracker (CAT) is an independent scientific project that monitors government climate action and measures it against the globally agreed Paris Agreement aim of "holding warming well below 2°C, and pursuing efforts to limit warming to 1.5°C." It is a collaboration between Climate Analytics and the New Climate Institute. CAT has been providing assessments since 2009. It evaluates countries’ emission reduction pledges, policies, and their impact on global warming. Options (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect:
The Climate Action Tracker is neither a part of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) nor the UNFCCC. The IPCC is a separate body that assesses scientific, technical, and socio-economic information related to climate change. The UNFCCC is an international treaty that provides the framework for global climate negotiations. The Climate Action Tracker is not funded or promoted by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) or the World Bank. It is an independent initiative run by research organizations.
UPSC 2022Environment and Ecology · Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies
Q8. Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
Explanation
Central Ground Water Authority has been constituted under Section 3 (3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate and control development and management of groundwater resources in the country. Central Ground Water Authority takes care of regulation and control, management and development of groundwater in the country and issues necessary regulatory directions for the purpose. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was enacted in the aftermath of Bhopal Gas Tragedy (1984) for protecting, improving environment & reducing pollution. The Act authorises the central government to control & reduce pollution from all sources. It also provides procedures for setting standards of emission or discharge of environmental pollutants.
Additional insight:
Organization Affiliated Ministry/Department Key Responsibilities Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Devel-opment & Ganga Rejuvenation Management, exploration, monitoring, assessment, augmentation, and regulation of groundwater resources in India. National Water Development Agency (NWDA) Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Devel-opment & Ganga Rejuvenation Conducts water balance and feasibility studies, prepares reports for river interlinking projects, and supports the National Perspective Plan (NPP) for water resource development. Central Water Com-mission (CWC) Ministry of Jal Shakti Technical organization responsible for water resource planning, flood forecasting, inter-state river disputes resolution, and dam safety.
UPSC 2022Environment and Ecology · Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies
Q9. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements: 1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government. 2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. 3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: As per Section 39 of Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, every Wild Animal shall be the property of the State Government, and, where such animal is hunted in a sanctuary or National Park declared by the Central Government, such animal or any animal article, trophy, uncured trophy or meat [derived from such animal, or any vehicle, vessel, weapon, trap or tool used in such hunting] shall be the property of the Central Government.
Statement 2 is correct: The law governing the subject of wild-life, the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, provides for equal protection for wild animals irrespective of where they are found. It does not discriminate between wild animals found in protected areas and outside.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Mere apprehension or fear that a wild animal could endanger human life is not a ground for capture or killing. As per Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, only if the wild animal becomes a danger to human life or is deceased or disabled beyond recovery can it be allowed to be captured or killed by the competent authority, (Chief Wildlife Warden of the State).
Exam tip:
For S3, Apprehension" = fear or suspicion, not actual harm. So, even if the animal hasn’t attacked or shown aggression, just fearing it might is being considered enough to kill/capture it. That sounds too extreme and illogical, hence probably false.
UPSC 2022Environment and Ecology · Protected Areas for the Biodiversity Conservation
Q10. The "Miyawaki method" is well known for the:
Explanation
Miyawaki method is a method of urban afforestation by turning backyards into mini-forests. It includes planting trees as close as possible in the same area which not only saves space, but the planted saplings also support each other in growth and block sunlight from reaching the ground, thereby preventing the growth of weeds. Thus the saplings become maintenance-free (self-sustainable) after the first three years. It helps to create a forest in just 20 to 30 years while through conventional methods it takes anywhere between 200 to 300 years. In the Miyawaki Process:
The native trees of the region are identified and divided into four layers -- shrub, sub-tree, tree, and canopy. The quality of soil is analysed and biomass which would help enhance the perforation capacity, water retention capacity, and nutrients in it, is mixed with it. The ground is covered with a thick layer of mulch. A mound is built with the soil and the seeds are planted at a very high density -- three to five sapling per square meter.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
1
2022
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
2
2022
(b) Rice
3
2022
(d) 1, 2 and 3
4
2022
(b) 1 and 4 only
5
2022
(b) 2 and 4 only
6
2022
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
7
2022
(a) Database created by coalition of research organisations
8
2022
(c) Central Ground Water Authority
9
2022
(a) 1 and 2
10
2022
(c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Environment and Ecology?
This page covers 14 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Environment and Ecology in the UPSC 2022 Prelims, asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for Environment and Ecology?
Questions on Environment and Ecology in the UPSC 2022 Prelims are available for 22 years, from 1996 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.