UPSC 2019 Environment and Ecology Questions with Answers
20 previous year UPSC Prelims questions on Environment and Ecology in the UPSC 2019 Prelims. Choose an option to see the answer and explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 1–10 of 20 questions
Browse Environment and Ecology chapters
UPSC 2019Environment and Ecology · Agriculture and Environment
Q1. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as
Explanation
In India, pesticides must be registered with the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare’s Directorate of Plant Protection, Quarantine & Storage before they can be used. A 2015 report by the Anupam Verma Committee recommended banning 27 pesticides, including some commonly used chemicals mentioned above:
Pesticides restricted for use in the India: Aluminium Phos-phide, Captafol, Cypermethrin, Dazomet, Dichloro Diphe-nyl Trichloro ethane (DDT), Fenitrothion, Methyl Bromide, Monocrotophos, Trifluralin.
UPSC 2019Environment and Ecology · Pollution
Q2. In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned?
Explanation
Waste-to-Energy (WTE) technologies consist of any waste treatment process that creates energy in the form of electricity or heat from several types of waste: from the semi-sol-id (e.g. thickened sludge from effluent treatment plants) to liquid (e.g. domestic sewage) waste. Landfill gas recovery, Gasification, Pyrolisis, Thermal Depolymerisation are examples of Waste-to-Energy (WTE) technologies.
Option (d) is correct: Pyrolysis is a process of chemical de-composition of organic matter brought about by heat. In this process, the organic material is heated in the absence of air until the molecules thermally break down to become a gas comprising smaller molecules (known collectively as syngas). Gasification can also take place as a result of partial combustion of organic matter in the presence of a restricted quantity of oxygen or air. The gas, so produced, is known as producer gas. The gases produced by pyrolysis mainly comprise carbon monoxide (25%), hydrogen and hydrocarbons (15%), and carbon dioxide and nitrogen (60%). It is used commercially as a waste to energy system that converts municipal solid waste into synthesis gas (syngas) containing hydrogen and carbon monoxide that can be used to generate power.
UPSC 2019Environment and Ecology · Pollution
Q3. Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into the environment?
Explanation
Microbeads are manufactured solid plastic particles of less than one millimetre in their largest dimension. They are most frequently made of polyethene but can be of other petrochemical plastics such as polypropylene and polystyrene. They are used in exfoliating personal care products, toothpaste and in biomedical and health-science research.
Option (a) is correct: Microbeads can cause plastic particle water pollution and pose an environmental hazard for aquatic animals in freshwater and ocean water. NGT had earlier directed the GoI to test cosmetic products containing microbeads after a plea sought a ban on their use on the ground they are extremely dangerous for aquatic life and the environment.
UPSC 2019Environment and Ecology · Pollution
Q4. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate’? 1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits. 2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor. 3. Methane in the atmosphere oxidised to carbon dioxide after a decade or two. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Methane hydrate is an ice-like substance formed when CH₄ and water combine at low temperature (up to 250C) and moderate pressure (greater than 3-5 MPa, which corresponds to combined water and sediment depths of 300 to 500 m).
Statement 1 is correct: Owing to the melting of ice, global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits hence having a significant impact on climate change.
Statement 2 is correct: Sediment and sedimentary rock units below Arctic permafrost have the temperature and pressure conditions suitable for the formation and stability of methane hydrate.
Statement 3 is correct: Methane is relatively short-lived in the atmosphere; a molecule of methane is oxidised to water and carbon dioxide within a decade or so, mainly by reaction with other trace gases.
UPSC 2019Environment and Ecology · Pollution
Q5. Consider the following: 1. Carbon monoxide 2. Methane 3. Ozone 4. Sulphur dioxide Which of the above are released into the atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?
Explanation
Burning stubble (parali) is the process of removing crop residue from the field in order to prepare it for the next crop. Open stubble burning releases a lot of harmful pollutants into the air, including smoke, particles, greenhouse gases (CO₂, N₂O, O₃ CH₄), air pollutants (CO, NH₃, NOx, SO₂, NMHC), and volatile organic compounds. These pollutants are dangerous to human health. Husk burning reduces the fertility of the soil by destroying its nutrients. When stubble burns, heat is produced that permeates the soil, causing the loss of moisture and beneficial microbes.
Exam tip:
You can try, The "NOT" approach for all statements, this tests the improbability of negating a statement--if denying its impact seems highly unlikely, the statement is plausibly true. For Example: CO or O₃ are NOT released in crop burning? Absurd, unlikely.
UPSC 2019Environment and Ecology · Climate Change
Q6. In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into the stratosphere?
Explanation
There is a renewed interest in two dominant methods of geoengineering such as stratospheric sulphate aerosol increase and cirrus cloud thinning aims to reduce global warming effects. Geoengineering, often known as climate intervention, is the deliberate and extensive modification of the Earth’s climatic system with the intention of reducing global warming. The stratosphere can be injected with sulphate aerosol particles to block some of the sun’s rays and possibly cool the planet. Sulphur droplets are good at scattering the sun’s light back out into space and it does not heat the stratosphere as much as other aerosols.
UPSC 2019Environment and Ecology · Climate Change
Q7. Consider the following statements: 1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into the environment. 2. Cattle release ammonia into the environment. 3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into the environment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
As per the Indian Nitrogen Assessment report, 2017, the share of agriculture in total GHG emissions has gradually declined from 28% in 1994 to 14% in 2016. Agricultural emissions in India are primarily from the livestock sector (54.6%) and the use of nitrogenous fertilizers (19%). Rice cultivation in anaerobic conditions accounts for a major portion of agricultural emissions (17.5%).
Statement 1 is correct: Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into the environment Fertilizers (especially nitrogen-based like urea) lead to the emission of nitrous oxide (N₂O), a greenhouse gas. Microbial processes such as nitrification and denitrification release NO, NO, and NO.
Statement 2 is correct: Cattle release ammonia into the environment Cattle excrete urea in urine, which breaks down into ammonia (NH₃) through microbial action. Livestock farming is a major contributor to ammonia emissions.
Statement 3 is correct: Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into the environment Poultry litter (manure, bedding material, and feed waste) contains nitrogen compounds that can convert into ammonia, nitrates, and nitrites. This contributes to air and water pollution.
UPSC 2019Environment and Ecology · Climate Change
Q8. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements: 1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions. 2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions. 3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses. 4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) is a blended gas. It is produced by mixing hydrogen with CNG. HCNG reduces emissions of CO up to 70% and engines can be calibrated to release lower amounts of NO. enables up to 5 % savings in fuel. It can be the first step towards the future Hydrogen economy. It gives better performance due to higher Octane rating of H2.
Statement 1 is incorrect: HCNG doesn’t eliminate but reduces emissions of CO up to 70%.
Statement 2 is correct: It can be used in place of gasoline, diesel fuel and propane (C3H8) / LPG and its combustion produces fewer undesirable gases.
Statement 3 is correct: The blending of hydrogen with CNG provides a blended gas termed as HCNG. Also, the ideal Hydrogen concentration is close to 20 %. It can prove to be the ideal fuel for heavy-duty vehicles and applications with high loads.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The current cost of Hydrogen is more than the cost of Natural Gas. So, HCNG’s cost is more than CNG.
Exam tip:
When S2 says "Reduces", then, isn’t S1’s "Elimination of CO" an extreme phrase, hence S1 is more probable to be false, Also, what do you think is more practical and logical: Elimination or Reducing? Clearly Second one hence S1 false and S2 true giving option B as correct.
UPSC 2019Environment and Ecology · Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies
Q9. Consider the following statements: 1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown in forest areas. 2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce. 3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian Forest Act, 1927, was amended in 2017 to exclude bamboo grown on non-forest land from the definition of "tree," thereby allowing its free cultivation and transportation. However, this amendment does not grant forest dwellers the right to fell bamboo grown on forest areas. Bamboo in forest areas is still regulated under forest laws.
Statement 2 is correct: The Forest Rights Act (FRA) of 2006 recognizes bamboo as a minor forest produce (MFP).
Statement 3 is correct: The FRA, 2006, grants forest dwellers the right to own, collect, use, and dispose of minor forest produce (MFP). This includes bamboo, tendu leaves, honey, and other non-timber forest products.
Additional insight:
The National Bamboo Mission (NBM) in India, initiated by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, seeks to enhance the bamboo sector’s growth. It aims to expand bamboo plantations, improve post-harvest management, promote product development, and rejuvenate the industry, supporting nurseries, cultivation, and processing units.
UPSC 2019Environment and Ecology · Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies
Q10. In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?
Explanation
Laws to manage e-waste have been in place in India since
2011 under The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011, which was amended in 2016 as E-waste (Management) Rules, 2016. It recognises producers’ liability for recycling and reducing e-waste in the country. Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) is a policy approach under which producers are given a significant responsibility - financial and/or physical - for the treatment or disposal of post-consumer products. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) has been given the Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) authorisation under the new e-waste rules.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
1
2019
(a) pesticides in agriculture
2
2019
(d) Waste-to-energy technologies
3
2019
(a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
4
2019
(d) 1, 2 and 3
5
2019
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
6
2019
(d) Reducing the global warming
7
2019
(d) 1, 2 and 3
8
2019
(b) 2 and 3 only
9
2019
(b) 2 and 3 only
10
2019
(c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Environment and Ecology?
This page covers 20 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Environment and Ecology in the UPSC 2019 Prelims, asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for Environment and Ecology?
Questions on Environment and Ecology in the UPSC 2019 Prelims are available for 22 years, from 1996 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.