UPSC 2023 Prelims Questions with Answers

Explanation

Statement-I is correct: India’s public health system has historically been more focused on curative care (treating diseases after they occur) rather than preventive care (stopping diseases before they occur), promotive care (improving overall health and well-being), and rehabilitative care (helping patients recover after illness or injury). Statement-II is correct: India follows a decentralized approach to health care delivery. The responsibility for organizing and delivering health services lies primarily with the state governments. The central government plays a supportive role by providing policy guidance, funding, and technical assistance. The Constitution of India places health care under the State List (List II) which means states have the primary responsibility for health services. The central government’s role is largely limited to national health programs, policy formulation, and funding through schemes like the National Health Mission (NHM). Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I: The decentralized nature of health care delivery (Statement-II) does not inherently explain why the system focuses more on curative care (Statement-I). The focus on curative care is more related to historical priorities, resource allocation, and systemic challenges rather than the decentralized structure.

Explanation

Pair 1 is correctly matched: Section 6 of the Official Secrets Act,1923, deals with the unauthorised use of uniforms, falsification of reports, forgery, personation, and false documents.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Section 7 of the Official Secrets Act,1923 deals with the infraction of interfering with ‘Officers of the Police’ or ‘Members of the Armed Forces of the Union’ engaged in the discharge of their duties.

Pair 3 is correctly matched: Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 outlines that whoever uses a firearm in a ‘rash or negligent manner’ or in ‘celebratory gunfire’ so as to endanger human life or personal safety of others shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine which may extend to rupees one lakh, or with both.

Explanation

The Indian National Flag represents the hopes and aspirations of more than 1 billion people, and the display of the National flag is governed by the provisions of the Emblems and Names(Prevention of Improper Use Act, 1950) and the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971. Additionally, the Flag Code of India, 2002, brings together all such laws and practices in the form of guidance to all. Statement-I is incorrect: According to the Flag Code of India, the standard sizes of the Indian National Flag are:

Flag Size No. Dimensions (mm)

1. 6300° 4200

2. 3600° 2400

3. 2700° 1800

4. 1800° 1200

5. 1350° 900

6. 900° 600

7. 450° 300

8. 225° 150

9. 150° 100 Statement-II is correct: According to the Flag Code of India, the National Flag shall be rectangular in shape. The Flag can be of any size, but the ratio of the length to the height (width) of the National Flag should be 3:2.

Explanation

Statement-I is correct: The Constitution Day, also known as ‘Samvidhan Divas’, is celebrated in our country on 26th November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India. The day was officially declared as Constitution Day in 2015 to promote awareness of constitutional values and principles among citizens. Statement-II is not correct: The Drafting Committee was set up under the Chairmanship of Dr B.R. Ambedkar by the Constituent Assembly on 29 August 1947 to prepare a Draft Constitution for India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 355 of the Indian Constitution, it is the duty of the Union, i.e. the Central Government, to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.

Statement 2 is correct: Article 22(3)(b) of the Indian Constitution explicitly states that the rights under Article 22(1) and 22(2)--which include the right to legal counsel--do not apply to individuals detained under preventive detention laws.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Section 32 of Prevention of Terrorism Act 2002, allows confessions made before a police officer (not below the rank of Superintendent of Police) to be admissible as evidence in court, provided they are recorded in accordance with prescribed safeguards. This provision departs from general criminal law, where confessions before police are inadmissible under Sections 25 and 26 of the Indian Evidence Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 244(1) of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, "Scheduled Areas" refer to regions that the President can designate as such through an order following consultation with the Governor of the respective State.

Statement 2 is correct: The largest administrative unit forming the scheduled areas has been the district, and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the block. This is consistent with how Scheduled Areas are designated based on administrative feasibility and compactness.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The executive power of a state extends to the scheduled areas therein. But the Governor has a special responsibility regarding such areas. He has to submit a report to the President regarding the administration of these areas annually or whenever so required by the President as per Paragraph 3 of the Fifth Schedule.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: ‘Prisons’/’persons detained therein’ is a "State-List" subject under Entry 4 of List II of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India. Administration and management of prisons and prisoners is the responsibility of respective State Governments who are competent to take appropriate action in this regard. Each state has its own prison rules and regulations for day-to-day administration. However, given the significance of prisons in the Criminal Justice System, the Ministry of Home Affairs has been providing regular guidance and support to the States and UTs on diverse issues relating to prison administration.

Statement 2 is correct: The Prisons Act, 1894 defines prison as, any jail or place used permanently or temporarily under the general or special orders of a State Government for the detention of prisoners, and includes all lands and buildings appurtenant thereto. Section 59 of the Prisons Act 1894 confers upon the Provincial Governments (now state governments) powers to make rules consistent with this act. The Prisons Act, 1894, laid the foundation for state-level management of prisons, and this principle was carried forward after independence under the Indian Constitution. Thus, both statements are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Amarkantak Hills are located at the confluence of the Vindhya and Satpura Ranges, not the Sahyadri Range. It is a plateau region in Madhya Pradesh where the Vindhya and Satpura Ranges meet, along with the Maikal Hills. The Sahyadri Range is another name for the Western Ghats which are located along the western coast of India located further south.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Biligirirangan Hills belong to the Eastern Ghats mountain range rather than the Satpura Range. The BR Hills serve as an ecological bridge between the Western and Eastern Ghats, providing a corridor for wildlife movement.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Seshachalam Hills are part of the Eastern Ghats located in Andhra Pradesh, and are not related to the Western Ghats. The Seshachalam Hills are known for the Sri Venkateswara National Park and the Tirumala Temple.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake and the lake controls its flow and water discharge. It is one of the largest freshwater lakes of Asia and is located in Bandipora district in Jammu and Kashmir.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Kolleru Lake is fed directly by water from the seasonal Budameru and Tammileru streams and not the Krishna River. It is indirectly connected to the Krishna and Godavari systems by drains and channels. Kolleru Bird Sanctuary serves as a habitat for migratory birds.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Kanwar Jheel/Kabar Taal is a fresh-water residual oxbow lake formed due to the meandering of Burhi Gandak River, a tributary of Ganga(not Gandak River). It is located in Begusarai, Bihar. The lake is a significant bio-diversity hotspot, particularly for migratory birds, and has been designated as a Ramsar site.

Explanation

Ukraine is a country located in eastern Europe. Its capital is Kyiv which is located on the Dnieper River in north-central Ukraine. Ukraine shares its borders with seven countries:

Poland to the west Slovakia to the west Hungary to the west Romania to the southwest Moldova to the southwest Russia to the east and northeast Belarus to the north Among given countries Ukraine shares borders with Hungary and Romania only. The other countries-Bulgaria, Czech Re-public, Latvia, and Lithuania do not share a land border with Ukraine.