UPSC 2022 Prelims Questions with Answers

Explanation

Article 368, Part XX outlines the procedure for amending the Constitution, ensuring a balance between flexibility and stability.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Prior permission of the President is not required to introduce the bill for amending the Constitution in India. It is required in case of a money bill.

Statement 2 is correct: The 24th Constitutional Amendment made it obligatory for the President to give his assent, when a Constitution Amendment Bill was presented to him.

Statement 3 is correct: Article 368 of the Indian constitution requires that the constitution of India can be amended by both houses of parliament by a 2/3 majority(special majority). In case of disagreement between both houses, there is no provision to summon a joint session of parliament. Procedure for the Constitution Amendment (Article 368):

Borrowed from Constitution of South Africa Introduction of bills Amendment bill can be introduced only in either house of Parliament Who can introduce? Either by a minister or private member. President’s role in introduction of bill Prior permission of the President is not required to introduce the bill. Type of Majority needed Special Majority: Majority of the total membership of that house (50%) + by a majority of not less than 2/3 of the members of that house present and voting (2/3 of Present and Voting). Bill in houses Both the houses need to pass the bill with special majority Joint seating (Art. 108) There is no provision for a joint sitting in case of disagreement between the two Houses. Amending federal provisions Special majority + ratification by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority. Role of President in assenting the bill 24th constitutional amendment: It also amended Article 368 to provide expressly that Parliament has power to amend any provision of the Constitution. The amendment further made it obligatory for the President to give his assent, when a Constitution Amendment Bill was presented to him. Role of state legislature in introducing bill State legislature cannot introduce such a bill.

Explanation

Greenwashing is a deceptive marketing practice where a company misleads consumers into believing that its products, policies, or practices are environmentally friendly, when in reality they are not. It is used to improve a company’s public image without making real sustainability efforts. Companies often use misleading labels, vague terms (like "natural" or "eco-friendly"), or exaggerated claims to appear environmentally responsible. Examples of Greenwashing:

A company claims its plastic packaging is "biodegradable" but fails to mention that it takes decades to break down. Fast fashion brands marketing "sustainable" clothing lines while continuing environmentally harmful practices. Oil and gas companies promote carbon offset programs while still expanding fossil fuel extraction.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Climate Group is an inter-national non-profit organization that works to accelerate climate action by building and running large networks of businesses, governments, and other organizations. It focuses on initiatives like RE100 (renewable energy), EP100 (energy productivity), and EV100 (electric vehicles).

Statement 2 is incorrect: The EP100 initiative is led by the Climate Group in partnership with the Alliance to Save Energy, not the International Energy Agency (IEA).

Statement 3 is correct: EP100 is a global initiative that encourages companies to commit to doubling their energy productivity (output per unit of energy consumed). This helps drive innovation, increase competitiveness, and reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

Statement 4 is correct: Several Indian companies, such as Mahindra & Mahindra, Godrej and Dalmia Cement, are members of EP100 and have committed to improving their energy productivity.

Statement 5 is incorrect: EP100 is a global initiative that brings together companies committed to improving energy productivity. The Under2 Coalition is a global alliance of state and regional governments committed to reducing greenhouse gas emissions. Its Secretariat is managed by Climate Group.

Explanation

Option (a) is correct: The Climate Action Tracker (CAT) is an independent scientific project that monitors government climate action and measures it against the globally agreed Paris Agreement aim of "holding warming well below 2°C, and pursuing efforts to limit warming to 1.5°C." It is a collaboration between Climate Analytics and the New Climate Institute. CAT has been providing assessments since 2009. It evaluates countries’ emission reduction pledges, policies, and their impact on global warming. Options (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect:

The Climate Action Tracker is neither a part of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) nor the UNFCCC. The IPCC is a separate body that assesses scientific, technical, and socio-economic information related to climate change. The UNFCCC is an international treaty that provides the framework for global climate negotiations. The Climate Action Tracker is not funded or promoted by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) or the World Bank. It is an independent initiative run by research organizations.

Explanation

A solar storm is a disturbance on the Sun that can release a burst of energy and particles into space. These eruptions, such as solar flares and coronal mass ejections, can impact Earth by disrupting communication systems, damaging satellites, and even causing power outages. Statements 1 and 7 are correct: These solar explosions propel bursts of particles and electromagnetic fluctuations into Earth’s atmosphere that could lead to the malfunction of satellites, which might impact high-frequency communication blackouts, satellite anomalies, GPS scintillations, airline communication.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Solar storms affect the Earth’s magnetosphere and ionosphere but do not directly cause tsunamis, which are triggered by seismic activity, underwater landslides, or volcanic eruptions.

Statement 3 is correct: The solar explosions propel bursts of particles and electromagnetic fluctuations into Earth’s atmosphere that could destroy transformers in power systems.

Statement 4 is correct: Energy, radiation and high energy particles emitted by solar flares can trigger intense lights in the sky, called Auroras.

Statement 5 is incorrect: Flares are electromagnetic radiation bursts rather than actual fires. They won’t start forest fires as a result. While they release high-energy radiation, it does not directly ignite fires on Earth.

Statement 6 is correct: Particles from a CME can potentially collide with a satellite’s critical electronics, causing the satellite’s systems to malfunction.

Explanation

Cripps Mission (1942) headed by Stafford Cripps was sent to India with constitutional proposals to seek Indian support for World War II. Because of the reverses suffered by Britain in South-East Asia, the Japanese threat to invade India seemed real now and Indian support became crucial.

Statement (1) is incorrect: After the war the Constituent Assembly would be formed with members from Provinces (elected through proportional representation and not nominated) and Princely states (nominated). A new Constitution making body and the Government would negotiate a treaty for transfer of Power.

Statement (2) is correct: The proposal allowed any Province unwilling to accept the new Constitution to have the right to remain outside the Indian Union and negotiate a separate arrangement with Britain regarding its future. This provision was later seen as a precursor to the partition of India.

Explanation

Option (c) is correct: The Tea Board under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, along with the Indian Tea Association, lists Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, Himachal Pradesh, Tripura, Kerala, and Karnataka as tea-producing States. Kerala: Known for its tea plantations, particularly in Wayanad and the Western Ghats. Himachal Pradesh: Known for tea cultivation, especially in Kangra region. Tripura: Also a tea-producing State, with significant tea cultivation. Andhra Pradesh: Not a tea-producing State compared to the others listed. However, some claim Araku Valley as a minor tea production centre in the state. India tea production during 2023-24 was 1382.03 Million Kgs increased by 7.06 Million Kgs over 2022-23

Explanation

Statement 1 and 2 are correct: In India, monazite serves as the primary source of rare earth elements and thorium. Rare earth metals comprise a group of 17 elements known for their lustrous, silvery-white appearance and soft, heavy metallic properties. China dominates global rare earth production, contributing around 60-70 % of the total output. These elements play a critical role in the production of electronics, magnets, and batteries. Monazite, abundant in India’s coastal sands, is rich in rare earth elements and thorium, a radioactive material. Thorium is crucial for India’s three stage nuclear energy program.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Monazite is not found in the entire Indian coastal sands. While it is found along most of the southern Indian coast, particularly in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Orissa, it does not occur throughout the entire coastline.

Statement 4 is correct: As per Atomic Energy (Radiation Protection) Rules 2004, Indian Rare Earths Limited (IREL), a wholly owned Public Sector Undertaking of the Government of India (GOI) under Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), is the only entity which has been permitted to produce and process monazite, and handle it for domestic use as well as for export. Fig: Rare Earth Minerals

Explanation

Central Ground Water Authority has been constituted under Section 3 (3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate and control development and management of groundwater resources in the country. Central Ground Water Authority takes care of regulation and control, management and development of groundwater in the country and issues necessary regulatory directions for the purpose. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was enacted in the aftermath of Bhopal Gas Tragedy (1984) for protecting, improving environment & reducing pollution. The Act authorises the central government to control & reduce pollution from all sources. It also provides procedures for setting standards of emission or discharge of environmental pollutants.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: As per Section 39 of Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, every Wild Animal shall be the property of the State Government, and, where such animal is hunted in a sanctuary or National Park declared by the Central Government, such animal or any animal article, trophy, uncured trophy or meat [derived from such animal, or any vehicle, vessel, weapon, trap or tool used in such hunting] shall be the property of the Central Government.

Statement 2 is correct: The law governing the subject of wild-life, the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, provides for equal protection for wild animals irrespective of where they are found. It does not discriminate between wild animals found in protected areas and outside.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Mere apprehension or fear that a wild animal could endanger human life is not a ground for capture or killing. As per Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, only if the wild animal becomes a danger to human life or is deceased or disabled beyond recovery can it be allowed to be captured or killed by the competent authority, (Chief Wildlife Warden of the State).