This page lists 90 previous year UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination (General Studies Paper-I) questions on the UPSC 2022 Prelims. Choose an option to see the correct answer and the full explanation on the same page.
Explanations state facts as they stood in the year each question was asked, so words like “recently” or “currently” refer to that year, not today. For the present position, check the latest Current Affairs.
Showing 21–30 of 90 questions
UPSC 2022International Relations and Current Affairs · International Relations
Q21. Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news?
Explanation
The Senkaku Islands (called "Diaoyu Islands" by China) are a group of uninhabited islands in the East China Sea which is controlled by Japan but also claimed by China and Taiwan. The islands are located northeast of Taiwan, east of China, and southwest of Japan’s Okinawa Prefecture. They cover around 7 square kilometers and are strategically important due to their rich fishing grounds and potential oil and gas reserves. Japan claims it incorporated the islands in 1895 considering them terra nullius (land belonging to no one). China claims historical sovereignty over the islands, citing maps and records dating back to the Ming Dynasty. Taiwan also claims the islands and refers to them as Tiaoyutai.
UPSC 2022Art and Culture · Culture in India
Q22. Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct?
Explanation
Sangam literature, composed between 300 BCE and 300 CE, is a collection of Tamil poems reflecting ancient South Indian society, culture, and politics. It was composed by poets at the Sangam councils held in Madurai and include contributions from poets like Agastya, Kapilar, and Nakkirar. The literature is divided into Eighteen Greater and Ten Lesser Anthologies, covering themes of love (akam), valor (puram), and ethics. Key texts include Tolkappiyam (grammar), Purananuru (heroic poetry), and Akananuru (love poetry), offering insights into the region’s political, social, and religious life. The two major Tamil epics, Silappathikaram and Manimekalai, are cornerstones of Tamil literature and reflect the cultural and spiritual life of ancient Tamil society
Option (b) is correct: Sangam literature does make references to the social classification of Varna, which was a system of social classification in ancient India based on occupation and birth. Sangam Literature provides valuable details about the Sangam society and polity.Social classification of varna was known to Sangam poets.There is mention of social classes like the Arashar (kings), Vaishiyar (traders), and Velalar (farmers).
UPSC 2022Art and Culture · Culture in India
Q23. "Yoga Vasistha" was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of:
Explanation
Akbar had commissioned the translation of many Sanskrit works such as Mahabharata, Ramayana, Lilavati, and Yogavashishta into the Persian language. A Maktab Khana (translation bureau) was also established at Fatehpur Sikri for this purpose.
Option (a) is correct: The "Yoga Vasistha" was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of Akbar. It was commissioned by Akbar as part of his efforts to bring together different religious and philosophical ideas, bridging the gap between Hinduism and Islam. This translation helped introduce key concepts from Vedanta, Yoga, and Hindu philosophy to Persianspeaking audiences
UPSC 2022Science and Technology · Health
Q24. Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: 1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. 2. The organisms in probiotics are found in food we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. 3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Probiotics are live microorganisms that are intended to have health benefits when consumed or applied to the body.
Statement 1 is correct: Probiotics can be composed of bacteria, yeast, or both. The most common types of bacteria used as probiotics are Lactobacillus and Bifidobacterium, while Saccharomyces boulardii is an example of a yeast that is sometimes used as a probiotic.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Probiotics contain microorganisms that are similar to or the same as those naturally present in our bodies, especially in the digestive tract. Our gut microbiota consists of many types of bacteria, some of which are also found in probiotic products. These probiotics are often called "good" or "friendly" bacteria because they support gut health.
Statement 3 is correct: Some probiotic bacteria, like Lactobacillus, produce an enzyme called lactase, which helps in the digestion of milk sugar (lactose). Lactase breaks down lactose into simpler sugars, making it easier for the body to absorb. This is especially helpful for people who are lactose intolerant and have difficulty digesting dairy products.
Exam tip:
For S2, This is an absolute statement -- "do not naturally occur" -- and such extreme phrasing is a classic red flag in UPSC questions. In real life, most biological processes are not that absolute. If probiotics help human digestion and are being consumed to support the gut, wouldn’t it be more intuitive that those organisms already exist naturally in the gut to begin with? Yes! Hence S2 likely false.
UPSC 2022Science and Technology · Health
Q25. Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?
Explanation
B cells and T cells are integral components of the human immune system, each playing distinct roles in protecting the body from diseases caused by pathogens. B cells are primarily responsible for humoral immunity. They produce antibodies that specifically target and neutralize pathogens such as bacteria and viruses. T cells play a crucial role in cell-mediated immunity, not by producing antibodies but by carrying out essential immune functions. Helper T cells activate B cells to stimulate other immune cells to enhance the body’s defense. Cytotoxic T cells target and destroy infected or cancerous cells, eliminating harmful threats. Regulatory T cells help maintain immune balance by preventing excessive or inappropriate immune responses.
UPSC 2022Polity · Fundamental Rights
Q26. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements: 1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty. 2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company. 3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The word Mandamus means "we command". It directs activity and commands issued by the court to public officials asking him to perform. It is issued against any public body, corporation, inferior court, tribunal or government for the same purpose. Mandamus cannot be issued against a private individual or body.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In specific situations, Mandamus can be used against a government corporation and/or company and if a private entity till it is entrusted with a public duty. Supreme Court in Pradeep Kumar Biwas vs Indian Institute of Chemical Biology 2002 has deliberated upon this in detail.
Statement 3 is correct: The meaning of the word Quo Warranto is "By what authority or warrant". Quo Warranto is issued by the court to inquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office. Unlike the other writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person. Note: UPSC has given Option (d) as the official answer.
Exam tip:
For S2, Mandamus will not lie" absolute claim "Even if it is a Govt company" denies any exception. This is a red flag. No flexibility = likely false. Can a government company ever be involved in a public duty? LOGIC says: YES. So, how can you say Mandamus will never lie against a Govt Co.? Hence likely false.
UPSC 2022Medieval History · Vijayanagara Empire
Q27. In medieval India, the term "Fanam" referred to:
Explanation
Abdur Razzak, was a the Iranian ambassador who visited the Indian subcontinent during the reign of Deva Raya II, noted that in Vijayanagar, three types of coins were prominently used:
Varaha, Dinara, and Fanam. Among these, the Fanam was the most widely used. The chief gold coin of the Vijayanagar Empire was the varaha or pagoda. Tar was a silver coin Jittal was a copper coin.
UPSC 2022Modern History · Indian National Movement I (1905-1918)
Q28. Consider the following freedom fighters: 1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh 2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee 3. Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?
Explanation
Ghadar Party was a revolutionary group organised around a weekly newspaper "The Ghadar" with its headquarters at San Francisco and branches along the US coast and in the Far East.
Option (d) is correct: The moving spirits behind the Ghadar Party were Lala Hardayal, Ramchandra, Bhagwan Singh, Kartar Singh Saraba, Barkatullah and Bhai Parmanand, Rash Behari Bose, etc. Barindra Kumar Ghosh was associated with a revolutionary group called Jugantar and Jogesh Chatterjee was associated with the Hindustan Republican Association/ Army (HRA).
UPSC 2022Environment and Ecology · Agriculture and Environment
Q29. Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?
Explanation
Methane (CH) and nitrous oxide (N O) are the two most important GHGs after carbon dioxide (CO). The most rapid increase in CH emission was found in natural wetlands and rice fields due to increased rice cultivation area and climate warming. N O emission increased substantially in all the biome types and the largest increase occurred in upland crops due to increasing air temperature and nitrogen fertilizer use. Rice paddies are considered one of the most important sources of CH and N O emissions, which have attracted considerable attention due to their contribution to global warming.
UPSC 2022Environment and Ecology · Agriculture and Environment
Q30. "System of rice Intensification" of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in: 1. Reduced seed requirement 2. Reduced methane production 3. Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below
Explanation
The System of Rice Intensification involves cultivating rice with as much organic manure as possible, starting with young seedlings planted singly at wider spacing in a square pattern; and with intermittent irrigation that keeps the soil moist but not inundated, and frequent inter cultivation with weeder that actively aerates the soil. SRI is not a standardised, fixed technological method. It is rather a set of ideas, a methodology for comprehensively managing and conserving resources by changing the way that land, seeds, water, nutrients, and human labour are used to increase productivity from a small but well-tended number of seeds. Advantages of SRI Disadvantages of SRI Higher yields - Both grain and straw Higher labour costs in the initial years Reduced duration Difficulties in acquiring the necessary skills Reduced seed requirement Not suitable when no irrigation source available Lesser chemical inputs Less water requirement Reduced electricity consumption Less chaffy grain rain weight increased without change in grain size Higher head rice recovery Withstand cyclonic gales Cold tolerance Soil health improves through biological activity Reduced methane production
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
21
2022
(b) China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in the East China Sea.
22
2022
(b) The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.
23
2022
(a) Akbar
24
2022
(c) 1 and 3
25
2022
(d) They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.
26
2022
(c) 1 and 3 only
27
2022
(b) Coins
28
2022
(d) 3 only
29
2022
(b) Rice
30
2022
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 90 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on the UPSC 2022 Prelims, asked between 1995 to 2024. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for all subjects?
Questions on the UPSC 2022 Prelims are available for 30 years, from 1995 to 2024. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.