90 previous year UPSC Prelims questions on the UPSC 2022 Prelims. Choose an option to see the answer and explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 51–60 of 90 questions
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UPSC 2022International Relations and Current Affairs · Miscellaneous
Q51. Consider the following statements: 1. Gujarat has the largest solar park in India. 2. Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport. 3. Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The largest solar park in India is Bhadla Solar Park, located in Rajasthan, not Gujarat. Spread over 14,000 acres, it has a capacity of 2,245 MW and is among the largest in the world.
Statement 2 is correct: Cochin International Airport in Kerala is the world’s first fully solar-powered international airport. It was inaugurated as a completely solar-run airport in 2015 and won the UN Champions of the Earth award in 2018 for its sustainable model.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Goa does not have the largest floating solar photovoltaic (PV) project. The largest floating solar PV project in India is located in Ramagundam, Telangana, with a 100 MW capacity, developed by NTPC.
UPSC 2022International Relations and Current Affairs · Miscellaneous
Q52. With reference to the "Tea Board" in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Tea Board is a statutory body. 2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. 3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. 4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Tea Board of India is a statutory body established under the Tea Act, 1953. It is responsible for the promotion, research, regulation, and trade facilitation of the tea industry.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Tea Board functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The headquarters of the Tea Board of India is in Kolkata, not Bengaluru. Kolkata has been the traditional center of India’s tea trade.
Statement 4 is correct: The Tea Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow, which help facilitate tea exports, conduct quality inspections, and enhance international market reach.
UPSC 2022International Relations and Current Affairs · Miscellaneous
Q53. Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’?
Explanation
The Polar Code, implemented in January 2017 by the International Maritime Organization (IMO), is a mandatory regulatory framework for ships operating in Arctic and Antarctic waters. It covers ship design, crew training, pollution prevention, and navigation safety, ensuring environmental protection and human safety in extreme polar conditions. The Polar Code supplements existing MARPOL (Marine Pollution) and SOLAS (Safety of Life at Sea) conventions.
UPSC 2022International Relations and Current Affairs · Miscellaneous
Q54. Consider the following statements: 1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization. 2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The India Sanitation Coalition (ISC) is an independent platform led by FICCI, aimed at promoting sanitation, but it is not funded directly by the Government of India or WHO.
Statement 2 is correct: The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) is an autonomous research body under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). It provides policy recommendations, urban research, and capacity building for cities across India.
UPSC 2022International Relations and Current Affairs · Miscellaneous
Q55. In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)? 1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of In-dia. 2. It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks. 3. It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas. 4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The CCO is the primary source of coal statistics in India, collecting data on production, stock, and dispatch.
Statement 2 is correct: It monitors captive coal and lignite blocks, ensuring efficient allocation and compliance.
Statement 3 is correct: The CCO hears objections regarding coal-bearing land acquisition, as per the Coal Bearing Areas (Acquisition and Development) Act, 1957.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The CCO does not oversee direct coal delivery; this function is handled by Coal India Limited (CIL) and private coal producers. Coal is India’s primary energy source, contributing to over 55% of electricity generation. The Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO) plays a pivotal role in coal regulation, monitoring, and policy implementation.
UPSC 2022International Relations and Current Affairs · Miscellaneous
Q56. In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and layoffs in factories employing workers?
Explanation
The Labour Bureau, part of the Ministry of Labour & Employment, is tasked with compiling and analyzing data on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments, and layoffs in factories with workers. It releases the Industrial Disputes Statistics Report and other labour market indicators, which are essential for informing labour policy decisions in India. These data play a vital role in shaping policies, particularly in monitoring industrial conflicts, workforce reductions, and factory shutdowns. Other options are incorrect:
The Central Statistics Office (CSO) focuses on macroeconomic data, not industrial disputes. The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) handles investment and trade policies, not labour issues. National Technical Information System Manpower does not compile labour statistics.
UPSC 2022Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q57. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. 2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. 3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: When inflation is higher than the RBI aims to reduce liquidity in the market. Buying government securities injects money into the economy by increasing liquidity, which would worsen inflation. On the contrary the RBI is more likely to sell government securities to absorb excess liquidity.
Statement 2 is correct: When the rupee depreciates rapidly its value falls relative to the U.S. dollar. This means more rupees are required to purchase one dollar, indicating a weakening rupee. To stabilize the rupee and prevent excessive depreciation, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) can intervene in the foreign exchange market by selling dollars from its reserves. When the RBI sells dollars in the market, it increases the available supply of dollars in the foreign exchange market. Market participants (importers, banks, and investors) exchange rupees to buy these newly available dollars. This increases the demand for rupees. As demand for rupees rises, the pressure on the rupee to depreciate reduces. This can help stabilize or even strengthen the rupee.
Statement 3 is correct: A fall in US or EU interest rates makes Indian assets more attractive, prompting foreign investors to seek higher returns in India. This increases demand for the rupee, causing it to appreciate. A stronger rupee can hurt exports by making Indian goods more expensive globally. To stabilize the currency and protect export competitiveness, the RBI may intervene by buying dollars, increasing forex reserves and preventing excessive rupee appreciation.
Exam tip:
For S1, Buying government securities = injecting money into the economy. More money in the system = more demand, which leads to higher inflation, But the inflation is already high! So why would RBI fuel inflation further? Completely illogical hence false.
UPSC 2022Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q58. Consider the following statements: 1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. 2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. 3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Credit Rating is assessment of the creditworthiness of a borrower. Individuals are given ‘credit scores’, while corporations and governments receive ‘credit ratings’.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Credit rating agencies in India are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of In-dia (SEBI) under SEBI (Credit Rating Agencies) Regulations, 1999, not the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
Statement 2 is correct: ICRA (Investment Information and Credit Rating Agency of India Ltd.) was set up in 1991 by IFCI, LIC, SBI and select banks as well as financial institutions to rate debt instruments. The ICRA consists of a group of Companies including its subsidiaries. ICRA Limited is a public limited company listed on stock exchanges.
Statement 3 is correct: In India credit rating agencies registered under Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) are CRISIL, ICRA, CARE, SMERA, Fitch India and Brickwork Ratings. Globally, Fitch Ratings, Moody’s Investors Service and Standard & Poor’s (S&P) control approximately 95% of ratings business.
Exam tip:
For S2, have you ever read/heard any provisions about RBI in constitution? Probably not! because it doesn’t exist. Trust your knowledge. Probability is more that if it would have been there in constitution, you must have read it, hence likely false.
UPSC 2022International Relations and Current Affairs · Miscellaneous
Q59. Consider the following: 1. Aarogya Setu 2. CoWIN 3. DigiLocker 4. DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?
Explanation
Open-source digital platforms enable transparency, scalability, and accessibility in India’s e-governance initiatives. Aarogya Setu (contact tracing for COVID-19) was later open-sourced to enhance security and transparency. CoWIN (COVID-19 vaccination platform) was built using an open-source framework to facilitate large-scale vaccination tracking. DigiLocker (cloud-based document storage) operates on an open-source framework, allowing citizens to access digital documents securely. DIKSHA (Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing) is an open-source platform for education and teacher training.
UPSC 2022Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q60. With reference to the Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct? 1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. 2. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. 3. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
The Banks Board Bureau (BBB) was formed on the recommendations of ‘P. J. Nayak Committee to Review Governance of Boards of Banks.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Banks Board Bureau (BBB) was headed by a prominent professional or former senior government official, rather than the Governor of the Re-serve Bank of India (RBI). Notably, its first Chairman was Shri Vinod Rai, who previously served as the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Statement 2 is correct: Its primary role was to recommend appointments for senior positions in Public Sector Banks (PSBs), Financial Institutions (FIs), and Public Sector Insurance Companies. In 2022, the BBB was replaced by the Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB), which continues to carry out similar functions.
Statement 3 is correct: The BBB advises PSBs on various strategic matters such as: Business strategies, Capital raising plans, Governance reforms, etc. It also assists banks in addressing issues related to non-performing assets (NPAs) and improving operational efficiency.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
51
2022
(b) 2 only
52
2022
(d) 1 and 4
53
2022
(a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.
54
2022
(b) 2 only
55
2022
(a) 1, 2 and 3
56
2022
(c) Labour Bureau
57
2022
(b) 2 and 3 only
58
2022
(b) 2 and 3 only
59
2022
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
60
2022
(b) 2 and 3 only
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 90 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on the UPSC 2022 Prelims, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for all subjects?
Questions on the UPSC 2022 Prelims are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.