90 previous year UPSC Prelims questions on the UPSC 2022 Prelims. Choose an option to see the answer and explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 61–70 of 90 questions
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UPSC 2022International Relations and Current Affairs · Miscellaneous
Q61. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: 1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it. 2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. 3. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) is a flagship program for creating a unified digital health infrastructure in India. While hospitals are encouraged to adopt it, there is no mandatory requirement for private hospitals to join ABDM.
Statement 2 is incorrect: ABDM aims to improve accessibility to digital health services, but it is not mandatory for all citizens.
Statement 3 is correct: ABDM offers seamless portability across India, enabling citizens to access health records digitally, irrespective of location.
UPSC 2022Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q62. In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation?
Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is primarily responsible for maintaining price stability and controlling inflation in India. It does this through its monetary policy framework, which includes tools like the repo rate, reverse repo rate, open market operations, and cash reserve ratio (CRR). Under the Monetary Policy Framework Agreement (2016), the RBI, in collaboration with the Government of India has a mandate to maintain inflation at 4% (with a tolerance band of ±2%), i.e., between 2% to 6%.
UPSC 2022Polity · Parliament
Q63. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: 1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix. 2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. 3. The Deputy Speaker has the same powers as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings. 4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The election date of the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha is not fixed in the Constitution. However, according to Rule 8 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, The Speaker decides the date of election of the Deputy Speaker. The election usually happens after the Speaker’s election, but there is no constitutional or statutory time limit for it.
Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no such mandatory provision that the election of a candidate, as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. It is only by convention that the position of Deputy Speaker is offered to the opposition party in India.
Statement 3 is correct: In case of the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker presides over the sessions of the Lok Sabha and conducts the business in the house, during such time he/she enjoys the same power as the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The appointment of the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is not initiated by the Speaker. Instead, a member of the Lok Sabha moves the motion for the election, which is then put to vote in the House. While the ruling party historically held this position, in recent decades, a convention has developed of electing a member from the opposition. There is no rule or convention requiring the Prime Minister to second the motion, and any member of the House may do so.
Exam tip:
For S2, Red Flag: "Mandatory provision". For S4, aligns with Function-person/organisation/ministry match trap as its easy to manipulate to make it false.
UPSC 2022Polity · Parliament
Q64. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? 1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency. 2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers. 3. To impeach the President of India Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its issue. If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the emergency continues for six months, and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months.
Statement 2 is correct: A No-Confidence Motion can only be initiated and passed in the Lok Sabha (House of the People). The Rajya Sabha (Upper House) cannot move or pass a No-Confidence Motion against the government.
Statement 3 is incorrect: As per Article 61, when a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. The impeachment resolution needs to be passed by not less than a majority of two-thirds of the total membership in each house.
UPSC 2022Polity · Parliament
Q65. Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four rank viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister. 2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The constitution mentions the word ‘council of ministers’, however it doesn’t classify ministers into 4 categories. Generally, the Prime Minister and other Ministers are collectively known as the Council of Ministers.
Statement 2 is correct: As per 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, the total number of Central Council of Ministers/State Council of Ministers including Prime Minister/ Chief Minister should not be more than 15% of total strength of Lok Sabha. It aimed at curbing the growing size of Cabinets at both the Union and State levels, which had often led to inefficient governance, excessive expenditure, and political instability. The goal was to promote good governance, encourage coalition politics, and reduce the influence of "buying loyalty" by offering ministerial positions.
Exam tip:
For S1, Trap Alert: "The Constitution classifies..." UPSC loves to trap you with "Constitution does this" when in reality it’s convention, rule, or practice. Hence likely false, eliminates options A and C.
UPSC 2022Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q66. Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the "Fractional Orbital Bombardment System" often talked about in the media?
Explanation
The Fractional Orbital Bombardment System (FOBS) is a missile technology designed to place a nuclear warhead into a partial Earth orbit before deorbiting to strike a target. Unlike intercontinental ballistic missiles (ICBMs), FOBS takes an unpredictable orbital path, bypassing traditional radar systems and potentially striking from unexpected directions, such as via the South Pole. Originally developed by the Soviet Union in the 1960s, FOBS was tested with the R-36ORB missile but later abandoned under arms control treaties like SALT II and the Outer Space Treaty. Recent reports indicate renewed interest, with countries like China reportedly testing FOBS integrated with hypersonic glide vehicles. Its capability to evade missile defenses has raised global security concerns and spurred advancements in countermeasures. ICBM Radar Beam Launch site FOBS FOBS Apogee ~150 km ~1200 km Target Early-warning Radar Fig: Fractional Orbital Bombardment System (FOBS)
UPSC 2022Science and Technology · Miscellaneous
Q67. Consider the following statements: 1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. 2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces. 3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
A biofilm is a collection of microbial cells that are encased in a polysaccharide-based matrix and are permanently attached to a surface (i.e., cannot be removed by gentle rinsing). Microorganisms that form biofilms include bacteria, fungi, and protists. Noncellular materials such as mineral crystals, corrosion particles, clay or silt particles, or blood components, depending on the environment in which the biofilm has developed, may also be found in the biofilm matrix.
Statement 1 is correct: Biofilms may form on a wide variety of surfaces, including living tissues, food and food processing surfaces, indwelling medical devices (devices in the body like catheters, heart valves), human and animal tissue, industrial or potable water system piping, or natural aquatic systems.
Statement 2 is correct: Biofilms are a significant concern in the food industry, forming on surfaces such as cutting boards, conveyor belts, and food packaging equipment. Contaminated biofilms can lead to foodborne illnesses caused by pathogens like Listeria monocytogenes, Salmonella, and Escherichia coli.
Statement 3 is correct: Microorganisms in biofilms are significantly more resistant to antibiotics compared to planktonic (free-floating) cells because:
The EPS (extracellular polymeric substance) matrix acts as a barrier, limiting antibiotic penetration. Cells within biofilms have reduced metabolic activity, making them less susceptible to antibiotics targeting active processes. Some bacteria within biofilms can exchange antibiotic resistance genes via horizontal gene transfer. This resistance complicates treatment, especially in chronic infections such as cystic fibrosis, where Pseudomonas aeruginosa biofilms are common.
UPSC 2022Environment and Ecology · Protected Areas for the Biodiversity Conservation
Q68. The "Miyawaki method" is well known for the:
Explanation
Miyawaki method is a method of urban afforestation by turning backyards into mini-forests. It includes planting trees as close as possible in the same area which not only saves space, but the planted saplings also support each other in growth and block sunlight from reaching the ground, thereby preventing the growth of weeds. Thus the saplings become maintenance-free (self-sustainable) after the first three years. It helps to create a forest in just 20 to 30 years while through conventional methods it takes anywhere between 200 to 300 years. In the Miyawaki Process:
The native trees of the region are identified and divided into four layers -- shrub, sub-tree, tree, and canopy. The quality of soil is analysed and biomass which would help enhance the perforation capacity, water retention capacity, and nutrients in it, is mixed with it. The ground is covered with a thick layer of mulch. A mound is built with the soil and the seeds are planted at a very high density -- three to five sapling per square meter.
UPSC 2022Environment and Ecology · Protected Areas for the Biodiversity Conservation
Q69. Consider the following pairs: Wetland/Lake Location 1. Hokera Wetland: Punjab 2. Renuka Wetland: Himachal Pradesh 3. Rudrasagar Lake: Tripura 4. Sasthamkotta Lake: Tamil Nadu How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Explanation
Wetlands Location and Significance Hokera Wet-land Jammu and Kashmir. A perennial natural wetland that is part of the Jhelum basin. Renuka Wet-land Himachal Pradesh A naturally occurring wetland that receives freshwater springs and underground karst formations from the lower Himalayas and the Giri river. Rudrasagar lake Melaghar, Tripura A lowland sedimentation reservoir in the northeastern highlands that receives water from three enduring streams that empty into the River Gomti. Sasthamkotta lake Kollam district, Kerala Being Kerala’s largest freshwater lake, it has long been a popular destination for travellers.
UPSC 2022Environment and Ecology · Protected Areas for the Biodiversity Conservation
Q70. "If rainforests and tropical forests are lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys." Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statements?
Explanation
Natural wetlands are often called "earth’s kidneys" because they effectively filter pollutants from water, much like our kidneys filter waste and excess fluid from our bodies. Just as kidneys maintain a healthy balance of water, salts, and minerals, wetlands absorb and store excess nutrients, heavy metals, and chemicals from runoff. Aquatic plants and microorganisms help absorb heavy metals, excess nutrients, while sediment settles at the bottom in areas of slow-moving water, preventing it from reaching open water.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
61
2022
(b) 3 only
62
2022
(d) Reserve Bank of India
63
2022
(a) 1 and 3 only
64
2022
(b) 2 only
65
2022
(b) 2 only
66
2022
(c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
67
2022
(d) 1, 2 and 3
68
2022
(c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas
69
2022
(b) Only two pair
70
2022
(d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 90 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on the UPSC 2022 Prelims, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for all subjects?
Questions on the UPSC 2022 Prelims are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.