3,238 previous year UPSC Prelims (GS Paper-I) questions, from 1995 to 2025, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. Filter by subject, chapter or year.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 701–710 of 3238 questions
Browse by subjectBrowse by year
UPSC 2018Medieval History · Miscellaneous
Q701. Which one of the following foreign travelers elaborately discussed diamonds and diamond mines of India?
Explanation
Jean-Baptiste Tavernier was a French traveler and gem merchant who traveled extensively in India during the 17th century. He was an independent traveller and trader who, between the years of 1630 and 1668, made travels to Persia and India in the courts of Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb. He is well-known for his detailed accounts of the diamonds and diamond mines of India, particularly the famous Golconda mines. Tavernier provided extensive information on the diamond trade, the mines in places like Golconda, and the prized diamonds, such as the Koh-i-Noor.
UPSC 2018Art and Culture · Miscellaneous
Q702. Consider the following pairs: Craft Heritage of 1. Puthukkuli shawls - Tamil Nadu 2. Sujni embroidery - Maharashtra 3. Uppada Jamdani saris - Karnataka Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Puthukkuli shawls are a traditional craft of the Toda tribe in the Nilgiri Hills of Tamil Nadu. The shawls are adorned with intricate Toda embroidery, locally called "Pugur," meaning flower. This craft has been granted Geographical Indication (GI) status and is a significant cultural heritage of Tamil Nadu.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Sujni embroidery originates from Bihar, not Maharashtra. It is a traditional form of embroidery from the Bhusura village in Bihar, often used to create quilts and other textile products. It has also received a GI tag.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Uppada Jamdani saris are woven in Uppada, East Godavari district of Andhra Pradesh, not Karnataka. These saris are known for their fine silk and intricate weaving patterns and have been granted a GI tag.
UPSC 2018International Relations and Current Affairs · Current Affairs
Q703. The term "Sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction" is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of:
Explanation
The "Sixth mass extinction" refers to the ongoing, human-driven loss of biodiversity, characterized by a rapid decline in species across the planet. This extinction event is primarily driven by human activities such as over-exploitation of resources, habitat destruction, pollution, and climate change.
UPSC 2018International Relations and Current Affairs · Current Affairs
Q704. The terms WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to:
Explanation
The terms WannaCry, Petya, and EternalBlue are associated with cyber attacks. These are names of malware and exploits that have caused significant global cybersecurity breach-es.
Option (c) is correct: Wanna Cry (2017) and Petya (2016) are types of ransomware attacks that exploited vulnerabilities in Microsoft Windows, with EternalBlue being the exploit used in these attacks. These cyber attacks caused widespread disruption across businesses and governments globally by encrypting data and demanding ransom. Options (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect:
Exoplanets refer to planets located outside our solar system and have no relation with WannaCry, Petya, or EternalBlue. Cryptocurrency involves digital currencies like Bitcoin, and while cyber attacks can target cryptocurrency platforms, the mentioned terms are directly associated with malicious software, not digital currencies. Mini satellites are small satellites used in space technology, and are unrelated to these cybersecurity threats.
Additional insight:
A cyberattack is a malicious and deliberate attempt by an individual or organization to breach another individual’s information system. Some of the most common cyber attacks are:
Phishing: Phishing is the practice of sending fraudulent communications that appear to come from a reputable source, usually through email. Man-in-the-middle (MitM) attacks: MitM attacks, also known as eavesdropping attacks, occur when attackers insert themselves into a two-party transaction. Denial-of-service attack: A denial-of-service attack floods systems, servers, or networks with traffic to exhaust resources and bandwidth. SQL injection: A Structured Query Language (SQL) injection occurs when an attacker inserts malicious code into a server that uses SQL and forces the server to reveal information it normally would not. Zero-day exploit: A zero-day exploit hits after a network vulnerability is announced but before a patch or solution is implemented. Attackers target the disclosed vulnerability during this window of time.
UPSC 2018International Relations and Current Affairs · Current Affairs
Q705. What is "Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)", sometimes seen in the news?
Explanation
Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD) is an American anti-missile system developed by the U.S. to intercept and destroy short, medium, and intermediate-range ballistic missiles during their terminal phase of flight.
Option (a) is incorrect: An Israeli radar system refers to systems like the Iron Dome, which is developed by Israel for intercepting short-range threats, but THAAD is an American system.
Option (b) is incorrect: India’s indigenous anti-missile programme refers to systems like the Aakash missile system, but THAAD is a U.S.-developed system, not an Indian one.
Option (c) is correct: THAAD is designed to counter missile threats and is part of the U.S. missile defense strategy. It works by using powerful radar systems to detect and track incoming missiles and then using interceptors to destroy them mid-flight.
Option (d) is incorrect: A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea refers to missile defense collaborations, but THAAD is specifically an American-developed system, not a bilateral project between Japan and South Korea.
UPSC 2018Science and Technology · Space and Space Technology
Q706. Consider the following statements: 1. Light is affected by gravity. 2. The Universe is constantly expanding. 3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time. Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in the media?
Explanation
General theory of relativity, is a geometric theory related to gravitation published by Albert Einstein in 1915 and currently defines gravitation in modern physics. A coherent account of gravity as a geometric property of space and time, or four-dimensional spacetime, is provided by general relativity, which generalises special relativity and improves Newton’s law of universal gravitation. In particular, the energy and momentum of all matter and radiation present have a direct relationship to the curvature of spacetime.
Statement 1 is correct: According to General Relativity, light travels along the curved spacetime shaped by the gravity of massive objects. This phenomenon, known as gravitational lensing, has been observed in effects such as Einstein’s Cross and the bending of starlight around the Sun.
Statement 2 is correct: General Theory of Relativity showed that space and time are malleable or flexible, and predicted that our universe was ever expanding.
Statement 3 is correct: The theory of relativity states that massive objects distort spacetime around it. And since photons travel the shortest distance between two points, light appears to be bent when it travels through the distorted spacetime of a massive object.
UPSC 2018International Relations and Current Affairs · Current Affairs
Q707. Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of "Digital India" Plan of the Government of India? 1. Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. 2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. 3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Option (1) is incorrect: The Digital India plan does not focus on forming India’s own internet companies like China did. Instead, it is more about enhancing infrastructure and accessibility to digital services across India.
Option (2) is incorrect: While data sovereignty is a key issue, the Digital India initiative does not specifically aim to encourage multinational corporations to build large data centers within In-dia’s boundaries. However, it does encourage data protection and localization policies.
Option (3) is correct: Connecting villages to the Internet and bringing Wi-Fi to schools, public places, and tourist centers is a major goal of the Digital India plan. This includes providing broadband connectivity to rural areas and ensuring access to government services through digital platforms.
Option (c) is incorrect: because while option 3 is correct, options 1 and 2 are not part of the Digital India goals.
UPSC 2018Polity · Emergency Provisions
Q708. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution of a particular State, then
Explanation
Option (a) is incorrect: The State Assembly is not automatically dissolved. It can either be dissolved or placed under suspension by the President.
Option (b) is correct: The proclamation of the President’s Rule is also known as ‘State Emergency’ or ‘Constitutional Emergency’. When the President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister and parliament passes the state bills and budgets.
Option (c) is incorrect: Article 19 is not automatically suspended in a state under President’s Rule. Suspension of Article 19 can only occur during a national emergency (Article 352).
Option (d) is incorrect: The President cannot make laws for the state. Law-making power during the President’s Rule is vested in the Parliament or those authorized by it.
UPSC 2018Science and Technology · Space and Space Technology
Q709. With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: 1. PSLVs launch the satellite useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. 2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. 3. GSLV Mk III is a four staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) is primarily used to place satellites in Sun-Synchronous Polar Orbits (SSO), which are ideal for Earth observation, remote sensing, and resource monitoring. The Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) is used to place communication satellites into Geostationary Transfer Orbit (GTO), from where they move into Geostationary Orbit (GEO) for telecom and broadcasting services.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
Geostationary satellites (which remain fixed over a location) are launched into Geostationary Orbit (GEO) at 35,786 km altitude, usually by GSLV, not PSLV. PSLV typically places satellites in Low Earth Orbit (LEO) or Sun-Synchronous Orbit (SSO), where they move relative to the Earth’s surface.
Statement 3 is incorrect:
GSLV Mk III (now LVM3) is actually a three-stage launch vehicle:
First stage: Two solid rocket boosters (S200) Second stage: A liquid-fueled core stage (L110) Third stage: A cryogenic stage (C25) There is no fourth stage in GSLV Mk III, making the statement incorrect.
Exam tip:
For S2, PSLV places satellites in polar orbits also and not necessarily in geostationary. Hence S2 is overly restrictive and likely false. For S3, When UPSC gives too much technical detail, its easier to manipulate and make it false.
UPSC 2018Environment and Ecology · Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies
Q710. Consider the following statements: 1. The definition of "Critical Wildlife Habitat" is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006. 2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights. 3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Critical Wildlife Habitats (CWH) are defined under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.. These are areas within wildlife sanctuaries and national parks that are critical for the survival of wildlife species and where human activities may be restricted.
Statement 2 is correct: The Baiga tribe in Madhya Pradesh was one of the first communities in India to be granted Habitat Rights under the Forest Rights Act, 2006. This recognition ensures their right to live in and sustainably use forest resources in their traditional habitats.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The declaration of Habitat Rights is the responsibility of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and state-level authorities under the framework of the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
Exam tip:
For S3, aligns with Function-person/organisation/ministry match trap as its easy to manipulate to make it false. Isn’t it should be Tribal affairs ministry??
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
701
2018
(b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
702
2018
(a) 1 only
703
2018
(d) Mankind’s over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.
704
2018
(c) Cyber attacks
705
2018
(c) An American anti-missile system
706
2018
(d) 1, 2 and 3
707
2018
(b) 3 only
708
2018
(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
709
2018
(a) 1 only
710
2018
(a) 1 and 2 only
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 3238 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for all subjects?
Questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.