3,238 previous year UPSC Prelims (GS Paper-I) questions, from 1995 to 2025, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. Filter by subject, chapter or year.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 681–690 of 3238 questions
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UPSC 2018Indian Economy · Agriculture
Q681. Consider the following statements: 1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years. 2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
India holds a significant position in the global oilseeds industry, contributing about 10% to the world’s total production. However, the demand for edible oils (including those derived from oilseeds, aside from palm oil) greatly exceeds domestic production, resulting in a reliance on imports for nearly 60% of the required supply.
Statement 1 is correct: With respect to the year 2018, Over the past five years, India’s edible oil imports have consistently surpassed domestic production, highlighting a significant dependence on foreign sources to meet consumption needs. This rising trend in imports persisted through 2023-24, reaching approximately 15.96 MMT. Meanwhile, domestic production has remained largely stagnant, accounting for only about 40% of the country’s total edible oil consumption. This imbalance highlights the widening gap between supply and demand, making large-scale imports essential to meet national requirements.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Indian government may impose customs duties on imported edible oils, adjusting rates to balance consumer interests and support domestic farmers. For instance, effective from September 14, 2024, a 20% basic customs duty was imposed on crude palm oil, crude soybean oil, and crude sunflower oil to support local oilseed farmers.
UPSC 2018International Relations and Current Affairs · International Relations
Q682. "Rule of Law Index" is released by which of the following?
Explanation
The "Rule of Law Index" is an annual report published by the World Justice Project (WJP). It evaluates countries based on their adherence to the rule of law using factors such as:
Constraints on government powers Absence of corruption Open government Fundamental rights Order and security Regulatory enforcement Civil and criminal justice The index ranks countries based on data collected from experts and surveys to assess how well nations uphold legal principles. The index is widely used by governments, policymakers, and civil society organizations to identify strengths and weaknesses in the rule of law and to guide reforms.
UPSC 2018Indian Economy · Agriculture
Q683. Consider the following: 1. Areca nut 2. Barley 3. Coffee 4. Finger millet 5. Groundnut 6. Sesamum 7. Turmeric The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above?
Explanation
The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a government-set price for crops. It helps prevent distress sales when market prices fall below this level. The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) makes recommendations on MSP. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) announces the MSP based on these recommendations. MSP ensures that farmers receive a fair income.
Option (b) is correct: The government announces minimum support prices (MSPs) for 22 mandated crops and fair and remunerative price (FRP) for sugarcane. Amongst the above, Barley, Finger millet, Groundnut, Sesamum are part of MSP crop list. Options (a), (c) and (d) are incorrect: Areca nut, coffee, and turmeric being commercial crops, are typically not covered under MSP.
UPSC 2018International Relations and Current Affairs · International Relations
Q684. What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’? 1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies. 2. It automatically becomes a member of "The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)". Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: NSG members can engage in nuclear trade and obtain access to advanced nuclear technology and materials. This includes technologies for peaceful uses such as medicine, energy production, and research. India seeks NSG membership to improve its access to civilian nuclear technology and fuel for energy generation.
Statement 2 is incorrect: NSG membership does not automatically grant NPT membership. Adherence to NPT principles is often considered during NSG membership discussions but signing the NPT is not a mandatory requirement for joining the NSG. For instance, India seeks NSG membership without being an NPT signatory. China has blocked India’s entry into NSG by citing India’s non-signatory status in NPT.
UPSC 2018International Relations and Current Affairs · International Relations
Q685. Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts?
Explanation
Yemen and South Sudan have experienced severe humanitarian crises in recent years, with millions of people suffering from famine, acute malnutrition, and starvation, primarily caused by ongoing wars and ethnic conflicts. Yemen has been experiencing one of the world’s worst humanitarian crises due to a prolonged conflict since 2015. The war, combined with a blockade, has led to widespread famine-like conditions, with millions of people suffering from acute malnutrition and starvation. Over 80% of the population requires humanitarian aid, and millions are at risk of famine. Since its civil war began in 2013, South Sudan has faced severe food insecurity and famine conditions. Conflict has displaced millions, disrupted agricultural activities, and caused widespread hunger. In 2017, a famine was officially declared in parts of South Sudan, and even now, half the population faces extreme hunger.
UPSC 2018Modern History · Indian National Movement I (1905-1918)
Q686. Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha?
Explanation
Champaran Satyagraha (1917) was undertaken after Mahatma Gandhi learned about the abuses suffered by farmers, who were forced into growing indigo by British planters and estate owners. Under the Tinkathia system in Champaran, tenants were forced to grow indigo on 3/20th of their land for landlords. European planters imposed high rents and illegal fees, sparking passive resistance. This marked the beginning of Gandhian methods and the involvement of peasants in the Indian National Movement.
UPSC 2018Polity · Fundamental Rights
Q687. Consider the following statements: 1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education. 2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines. 3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) lays down the minimum qualifications for teachers, not the State Councils of Teacher Education.
Statement 2 is correct: The Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) is conducted as per NCTE guidelines and is a mandatory requirement for teaching primary classes in government and private schools.
Statement 3 is incorrect: More than 90% of teacher education institutions are privately managed, and only a small percentage are directly run by State Governments.
UPSC 2018Polity · Fundamental Rights
Q688. Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India. 2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Ninth Schedule and Article 31-B of the Indian Constitution was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights. A law passed by the Parliament and inserted into the Ninth Schedule receives protection under Article 31-B (validation of certain Acts and Regulations) and is thus exempt from judicial review. However in IR Coelho vs State of Tamil Nadu, 2007, the SC ruled that all laws (including those in the Ninth Schedule) would be open to Judicial Review if they violated the basic structure of the constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The mandate of Ninth schedule is to prevent judicial scrutiny but according to the Kesavananda Bharati Case, 1973, any violation with the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution is open to challenge in court of law. Again in IR Coelho vs State of Tamil Nadu, 2007, the SC ruled that all laws (including those in the Ninth Schedule) after 24 April 1973 would be open to Judicial Review if they violated the basic structure of the constitution.
Exam tip:
For S2, it is well known fact that "everything " in India is under judicial review. Remember this! This clearly invalidates S2.
UPSC 2018Polity · Fundamental Rights
Q689. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the "Rule of Law"? 1. Limitation of Powers 2. Equality before law 3. People’s responsibility to the Government 4. Liberty and civil rights Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
The concept of ‘Rule of Law’ was propounded by A.V.
Dicey. It is a cornerstone of democratic governance, ensuring that everyone, including government officials, is governed by law.
Statement 1, 2 and 4 are correct: The concept of ‘equality before law’ as enshrined in Article 14 of constitution is aligned with "Rule of Law" whose key features include:
Limitation of Powers: Government authority must be constrained by law to prevent misuse of power. Equality Before the Law: All individuals, irrespective of status, are equal before the law. Liberty and Civil Rights: The Rule of Law protects individual freedoms and rights, ensuring the state cannot infringe on them arbitrarily.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The government is responsible/ accountable to the people. While citizens have duties and responsibilities, the Rule of Law primarily focuses on how power is exercised by the government and how citizens are protected under the law.
Exam tip:
What is the logical relationship between rule of law and people’s responsibility? None!, Rule of Law is about government’s accountability to people, not the reverse. Hence S3 is clearly false, eliminates option A and D. For S1, Very basic meaning to "Rule of Law" -- laws restrict arbitrary power. This must be included.
UPSC 2018Polity · Fundamental Rights
Q690. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?
Explanation
Article 21 of the Indian Constitution deals with the protection of life and personal liberty. The Right to Privacy is a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, ensuring individuals’ autonomy and protection against unwarranted state interference. It was affirmed as a constitutional right by the Supreme Court in the landmark 2017 Puttaswamy judgment.The right may be restricted only by state action that passes each of the three tests:
Such state action must have a legislative mandate; It must be pursuing a legitimate state purpose; and It must be proportionate.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
681
2018
(a) 1 only
682
2018
(d) World Justice Project
683
2018
(b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
684
2018
(a) 1 only
685
2018
(d) Yemen and South Sudan
686
2018
(c) Joining of peasant unrest to India’s National Movement
687
2018
(b) 2 only
688
2018
(a) 1 only
689
2018
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
690
2018
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 3238 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
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Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
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Questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.