3,238 previous year UPSC Prelims (GS Paper-I) questions, from 1995 to 2025, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. Filter by subject, chapter or year.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 631–640 of 3238 questions
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UPSC 2019International Relations and Current Affairs · Miscellaneous
Q631. Consider the following States: 1. Chhattisgarh 2. Madhya Pradesh 3. Maharashtra 4. Odisha With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?
Explanation
India’s forest cover varies significantly across states, with eastern and central states having higher coverage. According to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR), 2019, the correct ascending order based on percentage of forest cover to the total area is:
Maharashtra (16.47%) Madhya Pradesh (25.11%) Odisha (32.98%) Chhattisgarh (41.09%) Thus, the correct order is Maharashtra Madhya Pradesh Odisha Chhattisgarh (3-2-4-1).
UPSC 2019Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q632. The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of
Explanation
The Service Area Approach (SAA) was implemented under the purview of the Lead Bank Scheme. It was introduced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in April 1989. The SAA aimed to facilitate the planned and orderly development of rural and semi-urban areas. Under this approach, each commercial bank branch in these areas was designated to serve a specific cluster of 15 to 25 villages. The designated branch was responsible for meeting the banking needs of its assigned service area, thereby strengthening the link between bank credit and rural development.
UPSC 2019Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q633. Consider the following statements: The Reserve Bank of India’s recent directives relating to ‘Storage of Payment System Data’, popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that 1. they shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India 2. they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises 3. they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) directed payment system providers to ensure that all payment system data is stored only in India. This is part of the data localization policy.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The RBI’s directive does not require payment systems to be owned or operated by public sector enterprises only. The policy applies to all payment system providers regardless of whether they are public or private entities. It focuses on the localization of data storage rather than ownership structures.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The directive does not require payment system providers to submit audit reports to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. Instead, they are required to submit a System Audit Report (SAR) conducted by CERT-IN empaneled auditors to the RBI not later than December 31.
UPSC 2019Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q634. What was the purpose of the Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?
Explanation
The Inter-Creditor Agreement (ICA) was signed by Indian banks and financial institutions to expedite the resolution of stressed assets involving amounts of 50 crore or more under consortium lending arrangements. The ICA was part of the "Sashakt" committee recommendations which proposed a five-pronged strategy to tackle NPAs. The ICA provides a structured framework for multiple lenders to collaborate and resolve stressed assets efficiently. Key features include:
Majority Decision Binding: If 66% of the lenders by value agree on a resolution plan, it becomes binding on all participating lenders. This was done to prevent individual holdouts from delaying resolutions. Timely ReAns: The agreement emphasizes prompt action, setting specific timelines to finalize and implement resolution plans. Asset Management Approach: It encourages the formation of independent asset management companies to manage and turn around distressed assets.
UPSC 2019Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q635. The Chairman of public sector banks are selected by the:
Explanation
Banks Board Bureau recommends for selection of heads - Public Sector Banks and Financial Institutions and helps banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans. Bank Board Bureau was established as an independent organisation in February 2016 based on the suggestions of the RBI appointed Nayak Committee. It was part of the Indradhanush Plan. It suggested the selection of full-time directors and non-ex-ecutive chairs for Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and state-owned financial institutions. Note: Now, Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB) was put in place by the Government in place of BBB for recommending candidates for PSBs heads
UPSC 2019Polity · Parliament
Q636. Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’. 2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times. 3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: There is no bar on how many offices can be exempted from the purview of the law. In the past the Supreme Court also held that the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Amendment Act, 2006 exempting 55 offices occupied by members of Parliament from disqualification was constitutionally valid.
Statement 2 is correct: Parliament has also enacted the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959, which has been amended five times to expand the exempted list. Amended was made in the following years: 1960, 1977, 1993, 2006, 2013.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The expression ‘office of profit’ is mentioned in the Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) of Constitution but it has neither been ‘defined’ in the Indian Constitution nor in the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Exam tip:
For S3, The word "defines" is a strong and rigid claim. Think practically: The Constitution is not a dictionary. It doesn’t explicitly list out or define "Office of Profit". Hence likely false. Gives option A as correct..
UPSC 2019Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q637. Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?
Explanation
A bank’s assets are what it owns and what generates income for the bank. They represent how the bank uses the funds it has mobilized. A bank’s liabilities are what it owes to others. They represent the sources of funds that the bank uses to acquire assets and conduct its business. A commercial bank’s balance sheet, assets and liabilities are categorized as follows:
Assets:
Advances: These are loans and credits extended to customers, generating interest income for the bank. Investments: Holdings in government securities, bonds, and other approved securities that earn returns. Money at Call and Short Notice: Short-term funds lent to other banks or financial institutions, typically repayable on demand or within a short period. Liabilities:
Deposits: Funds accepted from the public, including savings, current, and fixed deposits, which the bank is obligated to repay. Hence, option (b) is correct.
UPSC 2019Polity · Parliament
Q638. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.? 1. Ad Hoc Committee set up by the Parliament. 2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committee 3. Finance Commission 4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission 5. NITI Aayog Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
In India, independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, and electricity play a crucial role in ensuring that these sectors function efficiently and fairly.
Statement 1 is correct: Ad Hoc Committee set up by Parliament:
Temporary committees formed for specific purposes, including reviewing regulators.
Statement 2 is correct: Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committee: Main body responsible for scrutinizing independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, and electricity.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Finance Commission: Primarily deals with financial devolution between the Union and States, not regulatory reviews.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission (FSLRC): Was a one-time commission (2011) to review financial sector laws, not independent regulators.
Statement 5 is incorrect: NITI Aayog: Works as a policy think tank, but does not formally review regulators.
Exam tip:
S5, NITI is policy advisory, not a regulatory reviewer. No enforcement or oversight mandate. Most Likely false, eliminates options C and D. Now For S3, Ask yourself:
Does the Finance Commission ever intervene in the operations of TRAI, IRDAI, SEBI, CERC etc.? Answer: No, be-cause it’s not even within its functional mandate. Think in terms of function-entity misalignment in these. and you will reach at option A as correct.
UPSC 2019Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q639. Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?
Explanation
Option (d) is correct: P-Notes, short for Participatory Notes, are financial instruments that let foreign investors indirectly invest in the Indian stock market without registering with the market regulator Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). P-Notes act like a substitute for underlying Indian company shares. Essentially, P-Notes act as a proxy for direct investment. The overseas investor buys a P-Note from the FPI, and the FPI invests the underlying funds in Indian securities on behalf of the P-Note holder. Benefits for foreign investors include avoiding the hassle of registering with SEBI and offering anonymity. Options (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect:
Certificate of Deposits (CDs) are short-term debt instruments issued by banks to raise funds. They are not related to foreign investment in the stock market. Commercial Paper is also a short-term debt instrument issued by companies to raise working capital. It is also not directly used for foreign investment in the stock market. Promissory Note is a written promise to pay a specific sum of money at a certain date. While it can be used in various financial transactions, it’s not the instrument used for indirect foreign investment in the stock market through FPIs
UPSC 2019Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q640. Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of the Indian rupee?
Explanation
An expansionary monetary policy may lead to lower interest rates and thus flight of foreign capital from India (which would get better returns abroad). Also, such a policy may fuel inflation and higher imports through higher government spending and further cause a slide of the rupee. Options (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect: As these include the likely measures the Government/ RBI would take to stop the slide of the Indian rupee:
Curbing imports of nonessential goods-and promoting exports would help control imports and thus the depreciation of the rupee. Masala bonds were brought in to curb the slide of rupee since the borrowing is rupee-dominated and does not put pressure on our currency through borrowing dollars. Easing external commercial borrowing (ECBs) will lead to higher borrowing abroad and would temporarily bridge the deficit of forex in India preventing the slide of rupee.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
631
2019
(c) 3-2-4-1
632
2019
(b) Lead Bank Scheme
633
2019
(a) 1 only
634
2019
(d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending
635
2019
(a) Banks Board Bureau
636
2019
(a) 1 and 2 only
637
2019
(b) Deposits
638
2019
(a) 1 and 2
639
2019
(d) Participatory Note
640
2019
(d) Following an expansionary monetary policy
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 3238 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
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Questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.