3,238 previous year UPSC Prelims (GS Paper-I) questions, from 1995 to 2025, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. Filter by subject, chapter or year.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 621–630 of 3238 questions
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UPSC 2019Environment and Ecology · Climate Change
Q621. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements: 1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions. 2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions. 3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses. 4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) is a blended gas. It is produced by mixing hydrogen with CNG. HCNG reduces emissions of CO up to 70% and engines can be calibrated to release lower amounts of NO. enables up to 5 % savings in fuel. It can be the first step towards the future Hydrogen economy. It gives better performance due to higher Octane rating of H2.
Statement 1 is incorrect: HCNG doesn’t eliminate but reduces emissions of CO up to 70%.
Statement 2 is correct: It can be used in place of gasoline, diesel fuel and propane (C3H8) / LPG and its combustion produces fewer undesirable gases.
Statement 3 is correct: The blending of hydrogen with CNG provides a blended gas termed as HCNG. Also, the ideal Hydrogen concentration is close to 20 %. It can prove to be the ideal fuel for heavy-duty vehicles and applications with high loads.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The current cost of Hydrogen is more than the cost of Natural Gas. So, HCNG’s cost is more than CNG.
Exam tip:
When S2 says "Reduces", then, isn’t S1’s "Elimination of CO" an extreme phrase, hence S1 is more probable to be false, Also, what do you think is more practical and logical: Elimination or Reducing? Clearly Second one hence S1 false and S2 true giving option B as correct.
UPSC 2019Science and Technology · Space and Space Technology
Q622. Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘blackholes’ billions of light years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?
Explanation
Option (b) is correct: The LIGO detectors detected the first gravitational waves produced by two giant merging blackholes in 2016. Gravitational waves are ripples in spacetime’s fabric brought on by cosmic catastrophes like neutron stars or black hole collisions. These disturbances are incredibly powerful, yet their signals are feeble and difficult to detect when they travel through distant regions of space and time. In other words, it took that long for the signals to reach Earth. As a result, the observatory provides a chance to go back in time and solve puzzles about the origins of the universe. Options (a), (c) and (d) are incorrect:
A wormhole is a hypothetical structure that connects dispersed places in spacetime. It is based on a unique solution to the Einstein field equations. It is also known as an Einstein-Rosen bridge or wormhole. Although wormholes are consistent with the general theory of relativity, it is yet unknown whether they truly exist. The Higgs field, one of the fields in particle physics theory, undergoes quantum excitation to form the Higgs boson, an elementary particle in the Standard Model of particle physics. The Higgs particle is a large scalar boson with no electric charge, colour, or spin in the Standard Model. A gravitational singularity, or spacetime singularity, is a point where the values used to describe the gravitational field become infinitely large, regardless of the coordinate system used. At this point, the distinction between physical laws breaks down, and space and time lose their independent identities, merging into an indistinguishable and undefined state.
UPSC 2019Geography · Human and Economic Geography
Q623. With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements: 1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country. 2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government. 3. The State Government has the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: According to Section 3(e) of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act), ‘minor minerals’ include building stones, gravel, ordinary clay, ordinary sand, and other minerals that the Central Government may declare as minor minerals.
Statement 2 is incorrect: State Governments have the power to grant mining leases for minor minerals under Section 15 of the MMDR Act. The Central Government does not have the power to frame rules related to the grant of minor minerals. The power to frame rules for minor minerals lies with the State Governments under Section 15(1A) of the MMDR Act.
Statement 3 is correct: Section 23C of the MMDR Act empowers State Governments to make rules for preventing illegal mining, transportation, and storage of minerals, including minor minerals.
UPSC 2019Geography · Human and Economic Geography
Q624. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in which in the last five years, consider the following statements: 1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest. 2. Area under cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds. 3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane. 4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The area under rice cultivation in India, in 2019-20 was 43.7 million hectares while in 2023-24, it became 47.6 million hectares and is highest amongst all.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The annual area under Jowar ranges between 4 and 5 million hectares while the oilseed area is 27.1 million hectares (2019-20) i.e area under the cultivation of Jowar is less than that of oilseeds.
Statement 3 is correct: The area under sugarcane cultivation is 4.6 million hectares (2019-20), 4.9 million hectares (2020-21), 5.2 million hectares (2021-22). The area under cotton cultivation is 13.5 million hectares (2019-20), 13.3 million hectares (2020-21), and 12.4 million hectares (2021-22). Hence the area under cotton cultivation is more than sugar cultivation.
Statement 4 is incorrect: With respect to the year in which the question is asked The area under sugarcane cultivation does not seem to be steadily decreasing. The area under sugarcane cultivation is 4.99 million hectares (2013-14), 5.066 million hectares (2014-15), 4.953 million hectares (2015-16). Addition Information:
As per the Economic Survey 2023-24 Statistics, the area under cultivation (in million hectares) for the above crops over the past five year is:
UPSC 2019Environment and Ecology · Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies
Q625. Consider the following statements: 1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown in forest areas. 2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce. 3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian Forest Act, 1927, was amended in 2017 to exclude bamboo grown on non-forest land from the definition of "tree," thereby allowing its free cultivation and transportation. However, this amendment does not grant forest dwellers the right to fell bamboo grown on forest areas. Bamboo in forest areas is still regulated under forest laws.
Statement 2 is correct: The Forest Rights Act (FRA) of 2006 recognizes bamboo as a minor forest produce (MFP).
Statement 3 is correct: The FRA, 2006, grants forest dwellers the right to own, collect, use, and dispose of minor forest produce (MFP). This includes bamboo, tendu leaves, honey, and other non-timber forest products.
Additional insight:
The National Bamboo Mission (NBM) in India, initiated by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, seeks to enhance the bamboo sector’s growth. It aims to expand bamboo plantations, improve post-harvest management, promote product development, and rejuvenate the industry, supporting nurseries, cultivation, and processing units.
UPSC 2019Environment and Ecology · Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies
Q626. In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?
Explanation
Laws to manage e-waste have been in place in India since
2011 under The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011, which was amended in 2016 as E-waste (Management) Rules, 2016. It recognises producers’ liability for recycling and reducing e-waste in the country. Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) is a policy approach under which producers are given a significant responsibility - financial and/or physical - for the treatment or disposal of post-consumer products. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) has been given the Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) authorisation under the new e-waste rules.
UPSC 2019Environment and Ecology · Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies
Q627. Consider the following statements: 1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels. 2. People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act (Campa Act), 2016 is aimed at providing an appropriate institutional mechanism to utilize afforestation funds. The Act sets up the Central and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management & Planning Authorities (CAMPA).
Statement 1 is correct: As per the Act, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) is set up at both central and state levels for expeditious and transparent utilisation of funds released for forest land diverted for non-forest purposes. The National Fund receives 10% & State Fund gets 90% of funds collected.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016 does not mandate people’s participation in compensatory afforestation programmes. While community involvement is encouraged in forest conservation efforts, the Act does not legally require it.
UPSC 2019Environment and Ecology · Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies
Q628. Consider the following statements: The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to: 1. State the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought 2. Lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 is aimed at protecting, improving the environment & reducing pollution. The Act, empowers the Government of India for coordination of action by the state, planning and execution of nationwide programmes. The Act authorises the central government to control & reduce pollution from all sources.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The provisions in the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 does not explicitly mention detailed provisions for public participation. However, it does enable certain mechanisms that indirectly promote public involvement.
Statement 2 is correct: Section 3(2)(v) of the Act states that the central government can prescribe standards for the quality of the environment and emissions or discharges of pollutants from various sources. The Act also allows the government to regulate industrial and commercial activities that may harm the environment.
UPSC 2019Environment and Ecology · Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies
Q629. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?
Explanation
Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 promote the use of compost, conversion of waste into energy, and revision of parameters for landfills location and capacity. It replaced the Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules, 2000 and are now applicable beyond municipal areas and have included urban agglomerations, census towns, notified industrial townships etc.
Option (a) is incorrect: Waste generators would now have to now segregate waste into three streams-Biodegradables, Dry (Plastic, Paper, Metal, Wood, etc.) and Domestic Hazardous waste (diapers, napkins, mosquito repellants, cleaning agents etc.) before handing it over to the collector.
Option (b) is incorrect: Under the Solid Waste Management Rules 2016, waste processing facilities will have to be set up by all local bodies having 1 million or more population within two years. In case of census towns below 1 million population, setting up common, or standalone sanitary landfills by, or for all local bodies having 0.5 million or more population and for setting up common, or regional sanitary landfills by all local bodies and census towns under 0.5 million population will have to be completed in three years.
Option (c) is correct: The new rules emphasize waste segregation at source, manufacturer responsibility for packaging and sanitary waste, and user fees for waste management. Biodegradable waste should be processed on-site through composting or bio-methanation, with residual waste handed over to authorized collectors. Schedule I of rules outlines criteria for landfill and waste processing site selection.
Option (d) is incorrect: As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, it is not mandatory for the waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.
UPSC 2019International Relations and Current Affairs · Miscellaneous
Q630. Consider the following statements: 1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India. 2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas. 3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was established in 2006 to regulate natural gas and petroleum products. It is not the first regulatory body in India. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) (1997) and Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) (1992) were established earlier.
Statement 2 is correct: PNGRB ensures competitive gas markets, tariff regulation, and fair trade practices in natural gas distribution.
Statement 3 is correct: Appeals against PNGRB’s decisions are heard by the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity (APTEL), which also deals with power sector disputes.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
621
2019
(b) 2 and 3 only
622
2019
(b) ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected.
623
2019
(a) 1 and 3 only
624
2019
(a) 1 and 3 only
625
2019
(b) 2 and 3 only
626
2019
(c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
627
2019
(a) 1 only
628
2019
(b) 2 only
629
2019
(c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
630
2019
(b) 2 and 3 only
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 3238 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
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Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
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Questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.