3,238 previous year UPSC Prelims (GS Paper-I) questions, from 1995 to 2025, each with the correct answer and a full explanation. Filter by subject, chapter or year.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
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UPSC 2002Indian Economy · External Sector of India
Q2521. Consider the following statements: Full convertibility of the rupee may mean: 1. Its free float with the international currencies 2. Its direct exchange with any other international currency at any prescribed place inside and outside the country 3. It acts just like any other international currency. Which of these statements are correct?
Explanation
Full Convertibility refers to a currency’s ability to be freely exchanged for any other currency without restrictions, both for current account transactions (like trade in goods and services) and capital account transactions (like investments and loans).
Statement 1 is correct: Full convertibility means the rupee can be freely exchanged with other international currencies without restrictions on the exchange rate, allowing it to float based on market demand and supply.
Statement 2 is correct: Full convertibility would enable the rupee to be directly exchanged with any foreign currency at both domestic and international financial institutions, facilitating smoother global trade and investment transactions.
Statement 3 is correct: A fully convertible rupee would function like an international currency, allowing unrestricted movement of capital across borders, making India more integrated into the global economy.
UPSC 2002Polity · Constitutional Bodies
Q2522. Consider the following statements with reference to India: 1. The Chief Election Commission and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers but receive unequal salaries 2. The Chief Election Commissioner is entitled to the same salary as is provided to a judge of the Supreme Court 3. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court 4. The term of office of the Election Commissioner is five years from the date he assumes his office or till the day he attains the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier Which of these statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election Commissioners (ECs) have equal powers and responsibilities within the Election Commission of India. They receive equal salaries as well and there is no disparity in salaries between the Chief Election Commissioner and the other Election Commissioners.
Statement 2 is correct: The Chief Election Commissioner is entitled to the same salary as is provided to a judge of the Supreme Court. Note: This fact was correct in accordance to the year in which it was asked. As per latest amendments in the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service, and Term of Office) Act, 2023, the salary of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election Commissioners (ECs) is now equivalent to that of the Cabinet Secretary.
Statement 3 is correct: The removal process for the Chief Election Commissioner mirrors that of a Supreme Court judge. This safeguards the CEC’s independence and ensures impartiality in their role. While an EC can be removed on the CEC’s recommendation.
Statement 4 is incorrect: An Election Commissioner serves a term of six years or until they reach the age of 65, whichever comes earlier. This discrepancy makes the statement incorrect.
Additional insight:
As per The Chief Election Commissioner And Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service And Term of Office) Act, 2023 Qualifications: The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners shall be appointed from amongst persons who are holding or have held a post equivalent to the rank of Secretary to the Government of India and shall be persons of integrity, who have knowledge of and experience in management and conduct of elections. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners shall not be eligible for re-appointment. Where an Election Commissioner is appointed as Chief Election Commissioner, his term of office shall not be more than six years in aggregate as the Election Commissioner and the Chief Election Commissioner. Selection Committee: It consists of Prime Minister (Chairperson), leader of Opposition in House of People and Union Cabinet minister (nominated by Prime Minister) Search Committee: A Search Committee headed by the Minister of Law and Justice and comprising two other members not below the rank of Secretary to the Government of India, shall prepare a panel of five persons for consideration of the Selection Committee. Salary: The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners shall be paid a salary which is equal to the salary of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
UPSC 2002Polity · Constitutional Bodies
Q2523. Which one of the following authorities recommends the principles governing the grants-in-aid of the revenues to the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India?
Explanation
The Finance Commission plays a crucial role in India’s fiscal structure. It is a constitutional body constituted by the President of India every five years, or more frequently if deemed necessary. Its primary responsibility is to recommend the distribution of financial resources between the central and state governments. One key function of the Finance Commission is to propose principles and guidelines for distributing grants-in-aid to states from the Consolidated Fund of India. These grants aim to support states in addressing fiscal needs, ensuring balanced regional development, and mitigating economic disparities among states.
UPSC 2002Geography · Indian Geography
Q2524. Which one of the following is not a lagoon?
Explanation
A lagoon is a shallow body of water separated from a larger sea or ocean by a barrier, such as a sandbar, coral reef, or barrier island. Lagoons are typically found along coastlines and are connected to the ocean by narrow inlets.
Option (c) is correct: Periyar Lake (Kerala) is an artificial freshwater lake formed by the construction of the Mullaperi-yar Dam on the Periyar River. It is not a lagoon. Options (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect:
Ashtamudi Lake is a brackish water lagoon in Kerala connected to the Arabian Sea. Chilka Lake (Odisha) is the largest brackish water lagoon in India and is connected to the Bay of Bengal. Pulicat Lake (Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu) is the second-largest brackish water lagoon in India and is connected to the Bay of Bengal.
UPSC 2002Geography · Indian Geography
Q2525. The average annual temperature of a meteorological station is 26°C, its average annual rainfall is 63 cm and the annual range temperature is 9°C. The station in question is:
Explanation
The climatic data provided matches the conditions of Chennai, which has a tropical wet and dry climate. Chennai experiences an average annual temperature of around 26°C, with a moderate annual temperature range of about 9°C due to its coastal location. The average annual rainfall of 120-140 cm is typical of Chennai, primarily influenced by the Northeast Monsoon. Other locations do not fit this profile: Allahabad and Kolkata have larger temperature ranges due to their continental climates, while Cherrapunji receives significantly higher rainfall, averaging over 450 cm annually. Hence, the station is most likely Chennai.
Additional insight:
Moderation Effect of coasts: The presence of a sea reduces the annual range of temperature due to the high specific heat capacity of water, which absorbs and releases heat more slowly than land. This moderating effect prevents extreme temperature variations, leading to smaller differences between summer and winter temperatures in coastal areas. Continentality: It refers to the influence of a location’s distance from the sea on its climate. Inland areas experience greater temperature extremes because land heats up and cools down faster than water, resulting in hotter summers, colder winters, and a larger annual temperature range compared to coastal regions.
UPSC 2002Geography · Indian Geography
Q2526. The sea coast of which one of the following states has become famous as a nesting place for the giant Olive Ridley turtles from South America?
Explanation
It is a migratory species that travels thousands of miles from South America and other regions to nest on the beaches of Orissa.
Additional insight:
The Olive Ridley turtles are known for their mass nesting events, called ‘arribadas’, where thousands of turtles come ashore to lay eggs. In India, the state of Orissa (now Odisha) is particularly famous for being a nesting ground for these turtles. The Olive Ridley turtle is listed as Vulnerable by the IUCN Red List due to threats like habitat destruction, pollution, fishing nets, and climate change.
UPSC 2002Geography · Indian Geography
Q2527. With reference to India, which one of the following statements is not correct?
Explanation
The mountain areas do not account for above thirty percent of the surface area of the country. Mountainous regions, including the Himalayas and other ranges, account for less than 30% of total surface area. The majority of India’s land area consists of plains (43%) and plateaus (27%). India receives a significant amount of rainfall, and about one-third of its area does receive more than 750 mm of annual rainfall, especially in regions like the Western Ghats, northeastern India, and coastal areas. Wells, including tube wells, are the largest source of irrigation in India, accounting for more than 60% of the irrigated area. Groundwater is extensively used for agriculture. The northern plains of India, formed by the Indus, Ganges, and Brahmaputra river systems, are predominantly covered by fertile alluvial soil, which is ideal for agriculture.
UPSC 2002Geography · Indian Geography
Q2528. Open stunted forests with bushes and small trees having long roots and sharp thorns or sharp thorns or spines are commonly found in:
Explanation
Option (d) is correct: Open stunted forests with bushes, small trees, long roots, and sharp thorns or spines are typical features of tropical thorn forests, which thrive in regions with low rainfall (25-75 cm annually) and semi-arid climates. Among the above, Western Andhra Pradesh experiences a dry climate with low rainfall, making it suitable for thorny vegetation such as acacia, babul, and cactus. The trees in these regions develop long roots to reach groundwater and spiny leaves to reduce water loss through transpiration. Options (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect:
Eastern Odisha has a more humid climate due to its proximity to the Bay of Bengal and receives higher rainfall. The vegetation here is more likely to be tropical moist deciduous or mangrove forests, not thorn forests. North-Eastern Tamil Nadu, including regions like Chennai, receives moderate rainfall and has a mix of dry deciduous and coastal vegetation. Thorn forests are not predominant here. The Shivalik Hills and Terai region (foothills of the Himalayas) have a subtropical climate with high rainfall. The vegetation here is typically tropical moist deciduous or subtropical forests, not thorn forests.
UPSC 2002Geography · Indian Geography
Q2529. Match List-I (Mangrove) with List-II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Mangrove)
List-II (State)
A. Achra Ratnagiri
1. Karnataka
B. Coondapur
2. Kerala
C. Pichavaram
3. Andhra Pradesh
D. Vembanad
4. Maharashtra
5. Tamil Nadu
Explanation
A mangrove is a unique ecosystem of salt-tolerant trees and shrubs that grow in tropical and subtropical coastal intertidal zones. These plants have specialized roots (e.g., stilt roots or pneumatophores) to survive in saline, waterlogged conditions. Mangroves provide critical habitats for marine life, protect coastlines from erosion, and act as carbon sinks.
Option (d) is the correct:
A is matched with 4: Achra Ratnagiri is a mangrove region located in Maharashtra state. B is matched with 1: Coondapur, also known as Kundapura, is a mangrove region situated in the state of Karnataka. C is matched with 5: Pichavaram is a famous mangrove forest located in Tamil Nadu. D is matched with 2: Vembanad is a lagoon and mangrove area in Kerala.
Additional insight:
Some of the more significant mangroves are listed as under:
Sunderban in West Bengal is the largest mangrove in India and World. It is famous for its Sundari tree. Bhitarkanika in Odisha is the second largest Mangrove. Thane Creek Mangroves, Maharashtra. Gulf of Kutch Mangroves, Gujarat. Chorao Island Mangrove Forests, Goa. Coringa mangroves in Andhra Pradesh.
UPSC 2002General Knowledge · General Awareness: India
Q2530. The world’s highest ground based telescopic observatory is located in:
Explanation
The world’s highest ground-based telescopic observatory is the Indian Astronomical Observatory (IAO), located in Hanle, Ladakh, India, at an altitude of 4,500 meters (14,764 feet). The Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA), an autonomous institute under the Department of Science and Technology, operates the observatory, ensuring optimal conditions for astronomical research.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
2521
2002
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2522
2002
(b) 2 and 3
2523
2002
(a) Finance Commission
2524
2002
(c) Periyar lake
2525
2002
(b) Chennai
2526
2002
(c) Orissa
2527
2002
(d) The mountain areas account for about thirty percent of the surface area of the country.
2528
2002
(d) Western Andhra Pradesh
2529
2002
(d) A-4; B-1; C-5; D-2
2530
2002
(b) India
Frequently asked questions
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This page covers 3238 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
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Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
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Questions on UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.