Indian Economy: UPSC Previous Year Questions (Prelims)
392 previous year UPSC Prelims Indian Economy questions are on this page, from 1996 to 2025, in 14 chapters. Banking Sector in India is the largest, followed by External Sector, Industry, Agriculture and Human Development. Recent papers favour statement-based questions on institutions, schemes and money and banking concepts. Filter by chapter to revise one area, or by year to see how a single paper tested the economy.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 51–60 of 392 questions
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UPSC 2022Indian Economy · Public Finance
Q51. With reference to the expenditure made by an organization or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditures. 2. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: When a company uses its funds to acquire or upgrade physical assets, it is called Capital Expenditure (CapEx). These assets can include property, plants, buildings, technology, or equipment. CapEx is intended to provide long-term benefits to the organization.
Statement 2 is incorrect: When a company borrows money to be paid back at a future date with interestit is known as debt financing. It is not a capital expenditure. Equity financingis the process of raising capital through the sale of shares.It is an example of non-debt capital receipts, not revenue expenditure.
Additional insight:
Capital Expenditure (CapEx): refers to the funds a company spends on acquiring, upgrading, or maintaining physical assets such as property, buildings, technology, machinery, or equipment. These expenditures are intended to provide long-term benefits to the company by improving its production capacity, efficiency, or overall infrastructure. Equity Financing: Equity financingis the process of raising capital through the sale of shares.It is an example of non-debt capital receipts. Debt financing refers to the process of raising capital for a company by borrowing money. In this type of financing, the company takes on a loan or issues bonds to investors, promising to repay the borrowed amount along with interest over a specified period.
UPSC 2022Indian Economy · Public Finance
Q52. With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings. 2. Dated securities issued at market related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: In India, people save through various financial options, including bank deposits, pension funds, insurance schemes, and government securities. Some of these savings are invested in government bonds and securities, helping the government fund its expenditures and manage its budget shortfall. Thus a portion of household financial savings is used to support government borrowing.
Statement 2 is correct: The Indian government raises money by issuing dated securities, which are long-term bonds with a fixed maturity date. Their interest rates are decided by market demand and supply. The government sells these securities through auctions, where banks, financial institutions, and investors place bids. These bonds make up a large part of the government’s internal debt, which is the money it owes to lenders with-in the country. The share of marketable securities in internal debt is at 76.4 per cent at end-March 2023 which is slightly moderate relative to 76.9 per cent at end-March 2022. The share of dated securities in public debt stood at 66.3 per cent at end-March 2023.
Outstanding Marketable Dated Securities (₹ crore, actuals at end-March)
Components
2018-19
2019-20
2020-21
2021-22
2022-23
(i) Issued through Borrowings
5479332
5965318
7114335
8007549
9127521
(ii) Conversion of Special Securities issued in lieu of ad-hoc Bills
47688
35688
33411
33360
24688
(iii) Conversion of recapitalisation bonds issued to Nationalised Banks
20809
20809
20809
19176
13712
Total Dated Securities (i to iii)
5547829
6021815
7168555
8060085
9165921
Percentage of Public Debt
73.5
70.3
68.1
66.5
66.3
Percentage of Gross Liabilities
59.5
57.3
58.8
58.1
58.7
Percentage of GDP
29.4
30.0
36.2
34.2
34.0
UPSC 2022Indian Economy · External Sector of India
Q53. "Rapid Financing Instrument" and "Rapid Credit Facility" are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?
Explanation
Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) and Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) are instruments of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) which provides financial assistance to the countries in need. Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI): The Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) provides rapid financial assistance, which is available to any IMF member countries facing an urgent balance of payment needs. The RFI was created as part of a broader reform to make the IMF’s financial support more flexible to address the diverse needs of member countries. It is one of the facilities under the General Resources Account (GRA) that provide financial support to countries, including in times of crisis. Rapid Credit Facility (RCF): The Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) provides rapid concessional financial assistance to low-income countries (LICs) facing an urgent Balance of Payments (BoP) need with no ex post conditionality where a full-fledged economic program is neither necessary nor feasible. The RCF was created under the Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust (PRGT) as part of a broader reform to make the Fund’s financial support more flexible and better tailored to the diverse needs of LICs, including in times of crisis.
UPSC 2022Indian Economy · External Sector of India
Q54. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee. 2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. 3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER AND REER. Which of the statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Nominal Effective Ex-change Rate (NEER) is an unadjusted weighted average rate at which a country’s currency exchanges for a basket of multiple foreign currencies. An increase in NEER signifies that the domestic currency has strengthened or appreciated relative to the selected basket of foreign currencies. An increase in NEER means that, on average, the rupee has become more valuable relative to those other currencies. It takes more of the foreign currencies to buy one unit of the rupee.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) is a measure of a country’s currency value relative to a basket of other currencies adjusted for inflation differentials. An increase in REER implies that the domestic currency has appreciated in real terms, making exports more expensive and im-ports cheaper. Consequently, a higher REER indicates a loss in trade competitiveness, not an improvement.
Statement 3 is correct: If domestic inflation is higher than inflation in other countries, the REER will appreciate (be-come more expensive) even if the NEER remains constant or depreciates. This divergence occurs because the REER calculation accounts for inflation differentials. The higher domestic inflation makes a country’s goods less competitive, even if nominal exchange rates don’t reflect that.
UPSC 2022Indian Economy · External Sector of India
Q55. Consider the following statements: 1. Tight monetary policy of the US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight. 2. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs). 3. Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: A tight monetary policy by the US Federal Reserve typically involves increasing interest rates to control inflation. Higher US interest rates can attract investors seeking better returns which can lead to capital outflows from emerging markets as investors move their funds to the US. This phenomenon is known as capital flight.
Statement 2 is correct: Capital flight can lead to the depreciation of the domestic currency as investors sell off local assets. For firms with ECBs(loans in foreign currency) denominated in foreign currencies, a weaker domestic currency means that more local currency is required to service the same amount of foreign debt, effectively increasing the interest cost and principal repayments in domestic currency terms.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Devaluation increases(not decreases) the currency risk associated with ECBs. If a firm has borrowed in a foreign currency and the domestic currency is devalued, the firm will have to pay more in domestic currency terms to repay the loan. This increases the burden of the debt and the currency risk for the borrower.
UPSC 2022Indian Economy · Security Market in India
Q56. With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of "Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)"? 1. The government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. 2. IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation. 3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Inflation-Indexed Bonds is a debt market securities offered by the government to protect the savings from inflation and offer positive real rates of returns. Since Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs) provide inflation protection to investors, the government can offer these bonds with lower coupon rates compared to traditional bonds. The inflation adjustment compensates for the lower fixed interest.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The existing tax provisions will be applicable on interest payment and capital gains on IIBs. There will be no special tax treatment for these bonds.
UPSC 2022Indian Economy · Security Market in India
Q57. Which of the following activities constitute a real sector in the economy? 1. Farmers harvesting their crops 2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics 3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company 4. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
The real sector refers to the segment of the economy that is involved in the production and consumption of tangible goods and services. It includes industries such as agriculture, manufacturing, construction, mining, and services like health-care, education, and transportation. Statements 1 and 2 are correct:
Farmers harvesting their crops: This is a primary sector activity directly contributing to the production of goods (agricultural produce). Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics: This is a manufacturing activity, part of the secondary sector, which also belongs to the real sector. Statements 3 and 4 are incorrect:
A commercial bank lending money to a trading company:
This is a financial sector activity, involving monetary transactions rather than the production of tangible goods or services. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas: This relates to the financial sector and capital markets, as it involves raising funds rather than producing goods or services.
UPSC 2022Indian Economy · Important Concepts in Economy
Q58. With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements: 1. As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest. 2. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: A convertible bond is a fixed-in-come corporate debt security that yields interest payments, but can be converted into a predetermined number of common stock or equity shares. Convertible bonds generally offer a lower coupon rate or rate of return in exchange for the value of the option to convert the bond into common stock. Investors will generally accept a lower coupon rate on a convertible bond, compared with the coupon rate on an otherwise identical regular bond, because of its conversion feature.
Statement 2 is correct: Equity (stock) prices tend to rise with inflation. Companies’ earnings and assets often appreciate during inflationary periods. Therefore, the option to convert a bond into equity provides a hedge against inflation. If inflation rises and the company performs well, its stock price is likely to increase. The bondholder can then convert the bond into equity at a more favorable price, thus benefiting from the rising prices and protecting their investment’s real value (purchasing power). This acts as a form of indexation (linking to a price index) against inflation.
UPSC 2021Indian Economy · Inflation
Q59. Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effects?
Explanation
Inflation is the general rise in prices of goods and services within an economy wherein, the purchasing power of consumers decreases, and the value of the cash holdings erode. The creation of new money to finance a Budget Deficit is highly inflationary. The government prints new money or borrows directly from the central bank (RBI in India) to fund its deficit. This directly increases the money supply in the economy without a corresponding increase in goods and services. It leads to excess liquidity in the economy causing demand-pull inflation.
Exam tip:
"Which option puts extra, unlimited cash in the system without removing any? "Only (d) fits that test."
UPSC 2021Indian Economy · Inflation
Q60. Which of the following steps is most likely to be taken at the time of an economic recession?
Explanation
A fall in the gross domestic product (GDP) for two or more consecutive quarters is often regarded as an economic recession. Recessions are brought on by high interest rates because they reduce liquidity, or the quantity of money available for investment.
Option (b) is correct: An increase in expenditure on public projects will lead to an increase in investments, leading to an increase in GDP and income in the economy and in turn increase in demand, completing the virtuous cycle of investment.
Option (a), (c) and (d) is incorrect:
Cutting taxes can increase disposable income, encouraging consumption and investment, which helps in a recession. However, raising interest rates makes borrowing more expensive, discouraging investment and consumption, which contradicts the objective of stimulating the economy during a recession. When income is falling in the economy then an increase in tax rates accompanied by a reduction of interest rate is not desirable at the moment. Reduction of expenditure on public projects in the time of recession will not be favourable as it will reduce the output of the economy.
Exam tip:
If the private sector freezes, the public sector must step in. Hence option B aligns most.
Option A and C are One foot on the brake, one on the accelerator" = bad policy mix, hence likely false.
Option D, exactly the opposite of what’s needed, Govt pulling back = even less money in the economy, hence false.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
51
2022
(a) 1 only
52
2022
(c) Both 1 and 2
53
2022
(b) International Monetary Fund
54
2022
(c) 1 and 3 only
55
2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
56
2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
57
2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
58
2022
(c) Both 1 and 2
59
2021
(d) Creation of new money to finance a budget deficit
60
2021
(b) Increase in expenditure on public projects
What UPSC has tested in Indian Economy
Money and banking questions test how RBI tools work: repo, CRR, open market operations, lender of last resort and the Monetary Policy Committee.
Public finance questions often use small calculations, such as revenue deficit and fiscal deficit in the 2025 paper.
Institutions and publications are tested by who issues what, such as the World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business or the IMF’s World Economic Outlook.
Agriculture and industry questions focus on schemes and prices: MSP, FRP, e-NAM, UDAY and the Rashtriya Gokul Mission.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Indian Economy?
This page covers 392 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Indian Economy, asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
Which Indian Economy chapters have the most questions?
Banking Sector in India has the most with 74 questions, then External Sector of India with 49, Industry with 44, Agriculture with 35 and Important Concepts in Economy and Human Development with 29 and 28.
How can I use these questions to prepare for the Economy section?
Take one chapter at a time using the Chapter filter, attempt the questions, and read the facts UPSC has tested at the end of the page. Repeat the banking and public finance chapters, since they are asked every year.
Are the 2025 Economy questions included?
Yes. The 2025 paper’s 19 Indian Economy questions, on revenue deficit, fiscal deficit, RBI income, RTGS and NEFT, bonds and stocks and the 15th Finance Commission, are included with explanations.