External Sector of India: UPSC Previous Year Questions (Indian Economy)
49 previous year UPSC Prelims questions on the external sector are on this page, from 1996 to 2025. UPSC asks about international institutions such as the IMF, the World Bank, the AIIB and the WTO, exchange-rate concepts, balance of payments items and external debt. The 2025 paper asked about the IBRD. The explanations define each term and name the body behind it.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
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UPSC 2025Indian Economy · External Sector of India
Q1. Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD): 1. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries. 2. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty. 3. It was established to help Europe rebuild after World War II. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is a global development cooperative owned by 189 member countries. As the largest development bank in the world, it supports the World Bank Group’s mission by providing loans, guarantees, risk management products, and advisory services to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries, as well as by coordinating responses to regional and global challenges.
Statement 1 is correct: The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) provides loans, guarantees, and advisory services to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is part of the World Bank Group and works in coordination with other institutions (like IDA), governments, and partners; IBRD does not work alone. IBRD works closely with all institutions of the World Bank Group and the public and private sectors in developing countries to reduce poverty and build shared prosperity.
Statement 3 is correct: The IBRD was created in 1944 with the initial mission of financing the reconstruction of European nations after World War II.
Exam tip:
For S2, the word "single-handedly " is way too extreme to be true for such a large task. Hence S2 likely false, giving option C as correct.
UPSC 2022Indian Economy · External Sector of India
Q2. "Rapid Financing Instrument" and "Rapid Credit Facility" are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?
Explanation
Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) and Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) are instruments of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) which provides financial assistance to the countries in need. Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI): The Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) provides rapid financial assistance, which is available to any IMF member countries facing an urgent balance of payment needs. The RFI was created as part of a broader reform to make the IMF’s financial support more flexible to address the diverse needs of member countries. It is one of the facilities under the General Resources Account (GRA) that provide financial support to countries, including in times of crisis. Rapid Credit Facility (RCF): The Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) provides rapid concessional financial assistance to low-income countries (LICs) facing an urgent Balance of Payments (BoP) need with no ex post conditionality where a full-fledged economic program is neither necessary nor feasible. The RCF was created under the Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust (PRGT) as part of a broader reform to make the Fund’s financial support more flexible and better tailored to the diverse needs of LICs, including in times of crisis.
UPSC 2022Indian Economy · External Sector of India
Q3. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee. 2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. 3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER AND REER. Which of the statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Nominal Effective Ex-change Rate (NEER) is an unadjusted weighted average rate at which a country’s currency exchanges for a basket of multiple foreign currencies. An increase in NEER signifies that the domestic currency has strengthened or appreciated relative to the selected basket of foreign currencies. An increase in NEER means that, on average, the rupee has become more valuable relative to those other currencies. It takes more of the foreign currencies to buy one unit of the rupee.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) is a measure of a country’s currency value relative to a basket of other currencies adjusted for inflation differentials. An increase in REER implies that the domestic currency has appreciated in real terms, making exports more expensive and im-ports cheaper. Consequently, a higher REER indicates a loss in trade competitiveness, not an improvement.
Statement 3 is correct: If domestic inflation is higher than inflation in other countries, the REER will appreciate (be-come more expensive) even if the NEER remains constant or depreciates. This divergence occurs because the REER calculation accounts for inflation differentials. The higher domestic inflation makes a country’s goods less competitive, even if nominal exchange rates don’t reflect that.
UPSC 2022Indian Economy · External Sector of India
Q4. Consider the following statements: 1. Tight monetary policy of the US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight. 2. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs). 3. Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: A tight monetary policy by the US Federal Reserve typically involves increasing interest rates to control inflation. Higher US interest rates can attract investors seeking better returns which can lead to capital outflows from emerging markets as investors move their funds to the US. This phenomenon is known as capital flight.
Statement 2 is correct: Capital flight can lead to the depreciation of the domestic currency as investors sell off local assets. For firms with ECBs(loans in foreign currency) denominated in foreign currencies, a weaker domestic currency means that more local currency is required to service the same amount of foreign debt, effectively increasing the interest cost and principal repayments in domestic currency terms.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Devaluation increases(not decreases) the currency risk associated with ECBs. If a firm has borrowed in a foreign currency and the domestic currency is devalued, the firm will have to pay more in domestic currency terms to repay the loan. This increases the burden of the debt and the currency risk for the borrower.
UPSC 2021Indian Economy · External Sector of India
Q5. Consider the following statements: The effect of the devaluation of a currency is that it necessarily: 1. Improves the competitiveness of domestic exports in the foreign markets. 2. Increases the foreign value of the domestic currency 3. Improves the trade balance Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Devaluation is a decrease in the value of a country’s currency relative to other currencies. It means it takes more of the domestic currency to buy one unit of a foreign currency. For example, if the exchange rate changes from 70 to 80 per dollar, the rupee has been devalued. Devaluation makes a country’s exports cheaper for foreign buyers. This can increase demand for exports, leading to higher export volumes and potentially improving the trade balance (ex-ports minus imports).
Statement 2 is incorrect: Devaluation means a decrease(not increase) in the value of the domestic currency relative to foreign currencies. It takes more of the domestic currency to buy one unit of a foreign currency.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Devaluation can potentially improve the trade balance over time by boosting exports and reducing imports, but it is not guaranteed. The trade balance may deteriorate because import costs rise immediately, while export volumes may take time to increase. This phenomenon is called the J-curve effect. If a country devalues its currency, it still has to pay higher prices for imported oil, machinery, and technology. Over time, as foreign buyers demand more of its cheaper exports, the trade balance may improve.
Exam tip:
"Necessarily" That’s a trap word -- it implies guaranteed outcome. So we must be cautious, especially for S1 and 3. For S3, Devaluation can help improve trade balance (more exports, fewer imports), BUT: If your exports are not price-sensitive (inelastic) Or if import costs rise too much (like crude oil) It might not improve trade balance, or might even worsen it Because of "necessarily", this statement fails the guarantee test. For S2, Devaluation = reducing the value of the domestic currency, hence likely false.
UPSC 2021Indian Economy · External Sector of India
Q6. Consider the following: 1. Foreign currency convertible bonds 2. Foreign institutional investment with certain conditions 3. Global depository receipts 4. Non-resident external deposits Which of the above can be included in Foreign Direct Investments?
Explanation
Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) refers to an investment made by an entity (typically a company or individual) from one country into a business or asset in another country, with the intent of establishing a lasting interest and exerting a degree of influence over the enterprise’s management and operations. It’s not just about a financial transaction but more about substantial and enduring involvement. Foreign currency convertible bonds (FCCBs) are debt instruments issued by a company in a foreign currency, which can be converted into equity shares at a future date. Because FCCBs can be converted into equity, and thus represent a potential ownership stake so They are considered a component of FDI. Foreign Institutional Investment (FII) are investments made by foreign institutions in the financial markets of another country. In India, if an FII’s investment exceeds 10% of the post-issue paid-up equity capital of a company, it is reclassified as FD Global Depository Receipts (GDRs) are financial instruments used by companies to raise capital from international markets. They represent shares of a foreign company and are traded on international stock exchanges. Investments through GDRs are treated as FDI since they result in foreign equity participation in the issuing company. Non-Resident External (NRE) Deposits are deposits held by non-resident Indians (NRIs) in Indian banks in Indian rupees. They are primarily a means for NRIs to invest their savings in India. While they represent a flow of foreign funds into India, they are not considered FDI. They are more akin to portfolio investments or remittance as they don’t involve a direct stake in a business or substantial management influence.
UPSC 2020Indian Economy · External Sector of India
Q7. With reference to the international trade of India at present, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. India’s merchandise exports are less than its merchandise imports. 2. India’s imports of iron and steel, chemicals, fertilisers and machinery have decreased in recent years. 3. India’s exports of services are more than its imports of services. 4. India suffers from an overall trade/current account deficit. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: India has historically faced a trade deficit in merchandise trade, meaning that the value of merchandise imports exceeds the value of merchandise exports. This is primarily due to India’s reliance on imports of crude oil, gold, electronics, and machinery, which are higher in value compared to its exports of textiles, gems, jewelry, and pharmaceuticals.
Statement 2 is incorrect: India’s imports of iron and steel, chemicals, fertilisers, and machinery have not decreased in recent years. These imports have remained significant due to domestic demand and industrial requirements. For example, India imports a large quantity of fertilisers to meet agricultural needs and machinery for industrial and infrastructure development.
Statement 3 is correct: India has a surplus in services trade, meaning that the value of services exports (e.g., IT services, software, business process outsourcing) exceeds the value of services imports. The services sector is a major contributor to India’s economy and helps offset the trade deficit in merchandise trade.
Statement 4 is correct: India typically has a current account deficit, although the size of the deficit can vary from year to year. The current account includes merchandise trade, services trade, and other flows like remittances and investment income. Even though India has a surplus in services trade, the deficit in merchandise trade generally outweighs it resulting in an overall current account deficit. Table: Trade during December 2024 December 2024 (USD Billion) December 2023 (USD Billion) Merchandise Exports 38.01 38.39 Imports 59.95 57.15 Services* Exports 32.66 31.63 Imports 17.50 15.63 Total Trade (Merchandise + Services)* Exports 70.67 70.02 Imports 77.44 72.78 Trade Balance -6.78 -2.76
UPSC 2019Indian Economy · External Sector of India
Q8. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements: 1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations. 2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB. 3. AlIB does not have any members from outside Asia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: As of 2023 the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) had 105 member’s. As of January 2025 the AIIB boasts 110 approved members worldwide which indicates its extensive global reach.
Statement 2 is incorrect: India is the second-largest shareholder in AIIB and holds 7.5% of the voting shares. The largest shareholder is China with 26.5% of the voting shares.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The AIIB’s membership extends beyond Asia and includes countries from Europe, Africa and the Americas. For instance nations like Canada, Egypt, and France are members and reflects the bank’s global appeal.
Exam tip:
S1 and S2 itself contradicts, an organ of NITI and headed by FM, hence either is clearly false, eliminating options A and D. The name ""Financial stability" make the proba-bilty of S2 being true more.
UPSC 2019Indian Economy · External Sector of India
Q9. In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis? 1. The foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector 2. Increasing the government expenditure 3. Remittances from Indians abroad Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
A currency crisis occurs when a country’s currency faces a sudden and sharp depreciation, often due to speculative attacks or a loss of confidence in the economy. Several factors can contribute to reducing the risk of such a crisis:
Statement 1 is correct: India’s Information Technology (IT) sector is a major exporter of services, earning substantial foreign exchange. These earnings increase the supply of foreign currency in the country, strengthening the Indian rupee and mitigating the risk of a currency crisis.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While government spending is crucial for economic growth, excessive expenditure can lead to higher fiscal deficits. This may result in increased borrowing, potential inflationary pressures, and could negatively affect investor confidence, thereby increasing the risk of a currency crisis.
Statement 3 is correct: Remittances are funds sent by Indians working overseas back to India. These inflows add to the coun-try’s foreign exchange reserves, providing a buffer against currency volatility and reducing the risk of a currency crisis.
UPSC 2019Indian Economy · External Sector of India
Q10. Consider the following statements: 1. Most of India’s external debt is owed by governmental entities. 2. All of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: While the government does hold a portion of India’s external debt, the majority of it is owed by non-governmental entities, primarily corporations. As of end-March 2023, India’s total external debt stood at approximately USD 624.7 billion. Of this, the government’s external debt was about USD 130.8 billion, accounting for roughly 20.9% of the total external debt. The remaining 79.1% is owed by non-governmental entities, including private sector corporations and financial institutions.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While a significant portion of In-dia’s external debt is indeed denominated in US dollars, it’s not all in US dollars. Indian entities also borrow in other currencies, such as Euros, Japanese Yen, and British Pounds, among others. Diversification of currency exposure is a com-mon practice in debt management. India’s external debt is de-nominated in various currencies. As of end-March 2023, 53.1% of the debt was in US dollars, 31.1% in Indian rupees, 5.7% in Japanese yen, 3.5% in Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), 2.9% in euros, and the remaining 3.7% in other currencies.
Exam tip:
"Most" and "All" are both danger words in UPSC -- always challenge them unless you’re 100% sure.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
1
2025
(c) I and III only
2
2022
(b) International Monetary Fund
3
2022
(c) 1 and 3 only
4
2022
(a) 1 and 2 only
5
2021
(a) 1 only
6
2021
(a) 1, 2 and 3
7
2020
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
8
2019
(a) 1 only
9
2019
(b) 1 and 3 only
10
2019
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
What UPSC has tested in External Sector of India
Rapid Financing Instrument and Rapid Credit Facility are related to the provisions of lending by the International Monetary Fund.
Amber box, blue box and green box refer to WTO subsidy classifications.
Import cover is the number of months of imports that the foreign exchange reserves can finance.
The New Development Bank was set up by the BRICS countries, not by APEC.
The Geographical Indications of Goods Act, 1999 was enacted in line with obligations under the WTO.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on External Sector of India?
This page covers 49 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on External Sector of India (Indian Economy), asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
What is import cover?
The number of months of imports that a country’s foreign exchange reserves can pay for. A higher import cover signals a stronger external position and a larger cushion against shocks to the balance of payments.
What are the amber, blue and green boxes?
Categories of agricultural subsidies in the WTO Agreement on Agriculture. Amber box subsidies distort trade and are limited, blue box ones are tied to production limits, and green box subsidies have minimal distortion and are allowed.
Who set up the New Development Bank?
The BRICS countries, Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa, in 2015, with its headquarters in Shanghai. It funds infrastructure and sustainable development projects in emerging economies and developing countries.