17 previous year UPSC Prelims questions on Indian Economy in the UPSC 2016 Prelims. Choose an option to see the answer and explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 1–10 of 17 questions
Browse Indian Economy chapters
UPSC 2016Indian Economy · Agriculture
Q1. Which of the following is/are the advantage/ advantages of practicing drip irrigation? 1. Reduction in weed 2. Reduction in soil salinity 3. Reduction in-soil erosion Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Drip irrigation is a type of micro-irrigation system that applies small amounts of water and fertilizer uniformly across a specific area. Examples of drip irrigation methods include surface drip irrigation, subsurface drip irrigation (SDI), drip tape, and micro-sprinklers.
Option 1 is correct: Drip irrigation delivers water directly to the plant’s root zone, reducing water availability for weeds, which helps in minimizing weed growth.
Option 2 is incorrect: Some of the disadvantages of Drip Irrigation are sensitivity to clogging, problem of moisture distribution, salinity hazards and high cost compared to furrow.
Option 3 is correct: Drip irrigation generally doesn’t contribute to significant erosion since water is delivered at low pressures and in controlled amounts, unlike surface irrigation where water flow can lead to erosion.
UPSC 2016Indian Economy · Industry
Q2. Which one of the following is the purpose of ‘UDAY’, a scheme of the Government?
Explanation
UDAY (Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana), launched in November 2015, aims to address the financial and operational inefficiencies of power distribution companies (DIS-COMs). It seeks to improve their financial health by allowing state governments to take over 75% of their debt and service the remaining through bonds. The scheme focuses on reducing Aggregate Technical and Commercial (AT&C) losses to 15% by 2019, lowering power generation costs through energy efficiency, and enhancing service delivery with uninterrupted power supply and timely billing for consumers.
UPSC 2016Indian Economy · Industry
Q3. What is/are the purpose/purposes of ‘District Mineral Foundations’ in India? 1. Promoting mineral exploration activities in mineral-rich districts 2. Protecting the interests of the persons affected by mining operations 3. Authorizing State Governments to issue licenses for mineral exploration Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Through the amendment in Mines & Minerals (Devel-opment & Regulation) (MMDR) Act, in 2015, Government of India has made provision for establishment of District Mineral Foundation in all the districts affected by mining.
Statement 1 is incorrect: DMFs are not directly involved in promoting mineral exploration activities. Their focus is on the welfare of affected communities and areas, not on exploration or mining activities.
Statement 2 is correct: The main purpose of DMFs is to protect the interests of persons and areas affected by mining operations. They use funds collected from miners to implement various developmental and welfare projects, such as healthcare, education, sanitation, and infrastructure, in mining-affected areas.
Statement 3 is incorrect: DMFs do not have any role in authorizing State Governments to issue licenses for mineral exploration. Licensing and regulation of mining activities are handled by the respective State Governments and the Central Government under the provisions of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957.
Exam tip:
The word "Foundation" + "District" = sounds welfare-ori-ented, not exploration-related or licenses related. Only S2 aligns with this.
UPSC 2016Indian Economy · Money Market
Q4. With reference to ‘Bitcoins’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Bitcoins are tracked by the Central Banks of the countries. 2. Anyone with a Bitcoin address can send and receive Bitcoins from anyone else with a Bitcoin address. 3. Online payments can be sent without either side knowing the identity of the other. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Bitcoin operates on a decentralized blockchain technology, which eliminates the need for any central authority such as central banks to track transactions. The system is maintained by miners who validate transactions and add them to the public ledger called the blockchain. While central banks are increasingly exploring the implications of cryptocurrencies and some are even considering issuing their own digital currencies (CBDCs), they do not currently track Bitcoin transactions.
Statement 2 is correct: Anyone with a Bitcoin wallet (which generates a Bitcoin address) can send and receive Bitcoins to and from any other Bitcoin address, anywhere in the world. A Bitcoin address functions as a public key, similar to a digital bank account number. This address can be shared to receive payments. Sending or receiving bitcoins requires no intermediary, allowing for peer-to-peer transactions across borders which is often faster and cheaper than traditional banking systems.
Statement 3 is correct: Bitcoin transactions are pseudo-anonymous which means that while wallet addresses are visible on the blockchain but the users’ identities are not directly linked to those addresses. This makes Bitcoin ideal for privacy-conscious users. This anonymity is a key feature that has attracted some users to Bitcoin, but it has also raised concerns about its potential use in illicit activities.
UPSC 2016Indian Economy · Money Market
Q5. What is/are the purpose/purposes of the Government’s ‘Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme’ and ‘Gold Monetization Scheme’? 1. To bring the idle gold lying with Indian households into the economy. 2. To promote FDI in the gold and jewellery sector 3. To reduce India’s dependence on gold imports Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Gold Monetization Scheme and Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme were introduced to lower the physical demand for gold and remove the estimated 20,000 tonnes of the precious metal from households where it was sitting inert. Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs) are government securities denominated in grams of gold issued by the RBI on behalf of the Government.
Statement 1 is correct: Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme was launched along with the Gold Monetisation Scheme in November 2015. India has a strong cultural affinity for gold, and a significant amount of gold is held by households in the form of jewelry, bars, and coins. The objective is to reduce India’s gold imports and bring all the gold lying idle with individuals and households and put it to productive use in the economy.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Neither the SGB nor the GMS is explicitly designed to promote FDI in the gold and jewellery sector. Their primary focus is on domestic gold mobilization and reducing reliance on imports. While a more organized gold market resulting from these schemes could create a conducive environment for investment, promoting FDI is not a stated objective of these schemes.
Statement 3 is correct: By offering a non-physical form of gold investment, the scheme aims to curb the demand for imported gold thus reducing the country’s import bill. The SGB scheme offers investors bonds denominated in grams of gold. These bonds provide returns linked to the market price of gold along with periodic interest payments.
UPSC 2016Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q6. The establishment of ‘Payment Banks’ is being allowed in India to promote financial inclusion. Which of the following statements is/are correct in this context? 1. Mobile telephone companies and supermarket chains that are owned and controlled by residents are eligible to be promoters of Payment Banks. 2. Payment Banks can issue both credit cards and debit cards. 3. Payment Banks cannot undertake lending activities. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Reserve Bank of India’s guidelines for licensing Payments Banks specify that entities such as existing non-bank Prepaid Payment Instrument (PPI) issuers, mobile telephone companies, supermarket chains, and others owned and controlled by residents are eligible to promote Payments Banks. This initiative aims to leverage their extensive customer bases and distribution net-works to enhance financial inclusion.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Payments Banks are permitted to issue ATM or debit cards but are not allowed to issue credit cards. This restriction aligns with their mandate to provide basic banking services without engaging in credit risk activities. The restriction on credit cards is a key differentiator between Payment Banks and traditional banks.
Statement 3 is correct: As per RBI guidelines their primary role is to accept demand deposits, provide payment and remittance services, and distribute financial products like insurance and mutual funds, thereby promoting financial inclusion without assuming credit risk.
UPSC 2016Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q7. The term ‘Core Banking Solution’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following statements best describes/describe this term? 1. It is a network of a bank’s branches which enables customers to operate their accounts from any branch of the bank on its network regardless of where they open their accounts. 2. It is an effort to increase RBI’s control over commercial banks through computerization. 3. It is a detailed procedure by which a bank with huge non-performing assets is taken over by another bank. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Core Banking Solution (CBS) is a centralized platform that connects all branches of a bank, allowing customers to access and manage their accounts from any branch, ATM, or online. It’s a software application that integrates various banking operations and provides a unified view of customer information. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect:
The implementation of Core Banking Solutions is primarily driven by individual banks aiming to improve operational efficiency and customer service. Core Banking Solutions are unrelated to the processes of bank mergers or acquisitions. They are technological systems that enable centralized operations and do not pertain to the takeover procedures of banks with significant non-performing assets.
Additional insight:
Core Banking Solutions (CBS) is a centralized banking system that enables banks to handle their daily operations, such as deposit accounts, loan processing, fund transfers, and customer transactions, through one unified platform.With CBS, all bank branches are connected to a central database, allowing customers to access banking services easily, no matter which branch they use. This system supports real-time transaction processing and ensures that data is consistently updated across all branches. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) uses E-kuber as its core banking solution, which was launched in 2012. E-kuber enables commercial banks to access their RBI current accounts anytime and from any location. It can be accessed via the internet or IN-FINET (Indian Financial Network), a secure network for member banks and financial institutions. INFINET serves as the communication backbone for the National Payments System.
UPSC 2016Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q8. What is/are the purpose/purposes of the Marginal Cost of the Fund-Based Lending Rate (MCLR) announced by RBI? 1. These guidelines help improve the transparency in the methodology followed by banks for determining the interest rates on advances. 2. These guidelines help ensure availability of bank credit at interest rates which are fair to the borrowers as well as the banks. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
MCLR is the lowest interest rate a bank can charge for loans. It helps banks calculate the minimum interest rate for different types of loans. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) introduced the MCLR system on April 1, 2016, to make monetary policy transmission more effective and increase transparency in setting interest rates. It replaced the base rate system, which had been used since July 2010.
Statement 1 is correct: Bringing transparency in the methods followed by various banks for the determination of interest rate is one of the key objectives of MCLR regime. Before banks used various methods to set lending rates which lead to opacity and confusion for borrowers. MCLR introduced a standardized, transparent calculation method, requiring banks to disclose its components, helping borrowers better understand their loan rates.
Statement 2 is correct: By standardizing the methodology for calculating lending rates, the MCLR guidelines aim to ensure that interest rates are "fair" to Borrowers and Banks:
The transparent methodology prevents banks from arbitrarily charging high interest rates. The MCLR framework allows banks to factor in their actual cost of funds when determining lending rates, ensuring that they can maintain profitability.
UPSC 2016Indian Economy · Public Finance
Q9. There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which action/actions of the following can be taken by the Government to reduce the deficit? 1. Reducing revenue expenditure 2. Introducing new welfare schemes 3. Rationalising subsidies 4. Reducing import duty Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
A budget deficit occurs when government expenses exceed revenue. It can be used as an indicator of the financial health of a country. It is a term more commonly used to refer to government spending and receipts rather than businesses or individuals. When a budget deficit occurs, it means that the current expenses surpass the income generated from regular operations. To correct its nation’s budget deficit, often referred to as a fiscal deficit, a government may cut back on certain expenditures or increase revenue-generating activities.
Statement 1 is correct: Reducing the revenue expenditure will certainly help in bridging the gap. Reducing revenue expenditure (such as government spending on salaries, interest payments, and subsidies) directly reduces the fiscal deficit. By controlling unproductive expenditure, the government can balance its budget more effectively.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Introducing new welfare schemes will most likely result in increasing expenditure and so will expanding industries which would require capital infusion. These steps will increase the budget deficit.
Statement 3 is correct: Rationalizing subsidies (for instance, by cutting unnecessary subsidies or targeting them better) can help reduce the fiscal deficit. Subsidies consume a significant portion of government revenue, and streamlining them would lead to savings.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Reducing import duties can reduce government revenue (as import duties are a source of income). This could increase the fiscal deficit if the loss in revenue isn’t compensated by other measures or increased economic activity.
UPSC 2016Indian Economy · Public Finance
Q10. Which of the following is/are included in the capital budget of the Government of India? 1. Expenditure on acquisition of assets like roads, buildings, machinery, etc. 2. Loans received from foreign governments 3. Loans and advances granted to the States and Union Territories Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Capital Budget consists of capital receipts (like disinvestment, borrowing, loans from public or foreign governments, Reserve Bank of India, etc) and capital expenditure (like expenditure on development of machinery, health facilities, etc). Capital budgeting implies setting targets for projects/schemes to ensure maximum profitability.
Statement 1 is correct: Capital Expenditure includes the expenditure on the acquisition of land, building, machinery, equipment, creating assets such as roads and hospitals, repayment of government borrowings.
Statement 2 is correct: Capital receipts components are Loan borrowings, disinvestments, funds received from the issue of shares or debentures, etc.
Statement 3 is correct: Loans, and advances by the central government to state and union territory governments, etc. are also included in the capital budget of the Government of India.
Additional insight:
The capital budget is divided into two parts i.e. capital receipts and capital expenditure. Capital Receipts: Capital receipts refer to incoming cash flows. They can be both non-debt and debt receipts. Loans from the general public, foreign governments and RBI form a major part of capital receipts. Capital Expenditure: Capital expenditure is the expenditure on the development of machinery, equipment, building, health facilities, acquisition of assets like land, research & development, education, etc.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
1
2016
(c) 1 and 3 only
2
2016
(d) Providing for financial turnaround and revival of power distribution companies
3
2016
(b) 2 only
4
2016
(b) 2 and 3 only
5
2016
(c) 1 and 3 only
6
2016
(b) 1 and 3 only
7
2016
(a) 1 only
8
2016
(c) Both 1 and 2
9
2016
(c) 1 and 3 only
10
2016
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Indian Economy?
This page covers 17 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Indian Economy in the UPSC 2016 Prelims, asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for Indian Economy?
Questions on Indian Economy in the UPSC 2016 Prelims are available for 30 years, from 1996 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.