Indian Economy: UPSC Previous Year Questions (Prelims)
392 previous year UPSC Prelims Indian Economy questions are on this page, from 1996 to 2025, in 14 chapters. Banking Sector in India is the largest, followed by External Sector, Industry, Agriculture and Human Development. Recent papers favour statement-based questions on institutions, schemes and money and banking concepts. Filter by chapter to revise one area, or by year to see how a single paper tested the economy.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 31–40 of 392 questions
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UPSC 2024Indian Economy · Security Market in India
Q31. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment. Statement-II: The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
The United States government issues Treasury Bonds (T-Bonds) as a way to borrow money. These bonds are considered one of the safest investments globally because they are backed by the full faith and credit of the US government.
Statement I is incorrect: Even in a case of a default by the U.S. government, U.S. Treasury bondholders retain their legal right to payment. A default would generally cause delays or restructuring but would not cancel bondholder claims. The U.S. government remains legally obligated to repay its debts, and investors can seek legal remedies, though enforcement is complex for sovereign debt. If the government misses payments, both American and foreign bondholders can sue in U.S. courts, such as district courts or the U.S. Court of Federal Claims, to enforce their claims.
Statement II is correct: US Treasury Bonds are not backed by physical assets like gold, land, or commodities. Instead, their value rests on the trust and faith in the US government’s financial stability and its ability to repay debts through taxation and economic growth. The US dollar’s status as the world’s re-serve currency further reinforces this trust, but there are no tangible assets pledged against US debt.
Additional insight:
U.S. Treasury Bonds (T-Bonds) are long-term debt securities issued by the U.S. government with maturities of 20 to 30 years. They are considered low-risk investments as they are backed by the "full faith and credit" of the U.S. government. T-Bonds offer fixed interest payments semi-annually and are used for funding government operations, defense, and development projects. As of February 2025, the U.S. debt stands at approximately $36 trillion, equivalent to 124% of GDP. It arises from budget deficits when spending exceeds revenue. The debt is financed primarily through Treasury securities and is not backed by hard assets but by the government’s ability to tax and borrow. Persistent deficits, rising interest costs, and mandatory spending on programs like Social Security and Medicare pose long-term fiscal challenges.
UPSC 2023Indian Economy · Agriculture
Q32. Which one of the following best describes the concept of ‘Small Farmer Large Field’?
Explanation
The ‘Small Farmer Large Field’ (SFLF) concept is an innovative agricultural model designed to address the challenges faced by small and marginal farmers. In this approach numerous smallholder farmers in a specific region come together to form groups and collectively manage and synchronize their farming activities. By pooling their resources and coordinating operations--from seed selection to harvesting--they effectively transform their fragmented individual plots into a unified larger field. Key Features of the SFLF Model:
Collective Decision-Making: Farmers jointly select crop varieties and plan the cultivation process, ensuring uniformity and efficiency across the consolidated land. Synchronized Agricultural Operations: Activities such as planting, irrigation, pest management, and harvesting are carried out in a coordinated manner, optimizing resource use and reducing operational costs. Enhanced Bargaining Power: By operating as a collective, farmers gain better leverage when negotiating with suppliers for inputs like seeds and fertilizers, and when marketing their produce to buyers, leading to improved income and market access.
UPSC 2023Indian Economy · Agriculture
Q33. Consider the following statements: 1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds. 2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. 3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking. How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Indian government includes niger seeds in its Minimum Support Price (MSP) pro-gram for Kharif crops. The MSP for niger seeds was set at 7,734 per quintal for the 2023-24 season reflecting an increase from previous years.
Statement 2 is correct: Niger is primarily cultivated as a Kharif crop in India. It is sown during the monsoon season (June-July) and harvested in the post-monsoon period (September-October). It is grown mainly in states like Odisha, Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, and Madhya Pradesh.
Statement 3 is correct: Niger seed oil is traditionally used by various tribal communities in India for cooking purposes. The oil which is extracted from niger seeds is valued for its nutritional properties and forms an integral part of the diet in several tribal regions.
UPSC 2023Indian Economy · Industry
Q34. Consider the investments in the following assets: 1. Brand recognition 2. Inventory 3. Intellectual property 4. Mailing list of clients How many of the above are considered intangible investments?
Explanation
Investments can be categorized into tangible and intangible assets. Tangible assets have a physical presence, while intangible assets lack a physical form. Intangible assets derive their value from intellectual or legal rights.
Option (c) is correct:
Brand recognition is an intangible asset because it does not have a physical form but contributes significantly to a company’s value. Strong brand recognition enhances consumer trust, customer loyalty, and market competitiveness. Example: Coca-Cola’s brand value is estimated at billions of dollars, despite not being a physical asset. Intellectual property (patents, trademarks, copyrights, trade secrets) is intangible and provides significant competitive advantage. Example: Patents for pharmaceutical drugs are valuable intangible investments for pharma companies. Mailing List of Clients is an intangible asset because it enhances marketing capabilities and customer retention. Example: E-commerce companies leverage customer mailing lists for targeted marketing. Inventory consists of physical goods that a company holds for sale or production. It is a tangible asset because it has a physical form and can be seen, touched, and measured. Example: A company like Reliance Retail holds inventory in the form of clothes, electronics, and groceries, which are physical goods. The Companies Act, 2013 and accounting standards (Ind AS) classify inventory as a tangible asset.
UPSC 2023Indian Economy · Industry
Q35. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods. Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Statement I is incorrect: As of 2022 India’s share in global merchandise exports was approximately 1.8% and not 3.2%. This figure has seen a modest increase from 1.69% in 2014 to 1.82% in 2022.
Statement II is correct: The Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme was introduced by the Indian government in 2020 to boost domestic manufacturing across various sectors. Both local and foreign companies have actively participated in this initiative including major global players like Dell, HP, Foxconn, Lenovo, etc.
UPSC 2023Indian Economy · Industry
Q36. Consider the following statements with reference to India: 1. According to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between 15 crore and 25 crore. 2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The MSMED Act, 2006 originally defined medium enterprises as those with investments in plant and machinery between 5 crore and 10 crore. As per the latest guidelines of 2020 a medium enterprise presently is defined as one where the investment in plant and machinery or equipment does not exceed 50 crore and turnover does not exceed 250 crore and not 15 crore to 25 crore. The following table provides the details of revised limits:
Category Old Capital Old Turnover New Capital New Turn-over Micro 25 Lakh 10 Lakh 1 Crore 5 Crore Small 5 Crore 2 Crore 10 Crore 50 Crore Medium 10 Crore 5 Crore 50 Crore 250 Crore
Statement 2 is correct: The Reserve Bank of India’s Master Directions on Priority Sector Lending (PSL) specify that bank loans to Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises are eligible for classification under the priority sector but subject to certain conditions. While loans to micro and small enterprises are fully eligible, loans to medium enterprises are considered under PSL only up to a certain limit. Specifically, bank loans up to 10 crore per borrower to medium enterprises engaged in providing or rendering of services are eligible for PSL classification.
UPSC 2023Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q37. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes. Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
Statement I is correct: In the post-pandemic period, many central banks worldwide carried out interest rate hikes. This was primarily in response to rising inflation caused by supply chain disruptions, increased demand post-pandemic, and geopolitical tensions (such as the Russia-Ukraine conflict). For example:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) raised the repo rate multiple times in 2022 and 2023 to combat inflation. The repo rate was increased from a historic low of 4% during the pandemic to 6.5% by early 2023. Similarly, the US Federal Reserve and the European Central Bank also raised interest rates aggressively to curb inflation.
Statement II is correct: Central banks such as RBI assume that they can counteract rising consumer prices (inflation) through monetary policy tools such as increasing interest rates. Higher interest rates reduce borrowing and spending, which in turn helps to cool down demand and control inflation. This is a well-established principle of monetary policy. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I: The inter-est rate hikes mentioned in Statement-I were explicitly carried out to counteract rising consumer prices (inflation), as stated in Statement-II.
UPSC 2023Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q38. Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of ‘sterilization’?
Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) employs Open Market Operations (OMOs) as a primary tool for sterilization. OMOs involve the buying and selling of government securities in the open market. When the RBI sells government securities, it absorbs liquidity from the banking system, effectively neutralizing the increase in money supply resulting from its foreign exchange interventions. This process helps in maintaining monetary stability and controlling inflation.
UPSC 2023Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q39. With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements: 1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using the US dollar or SWIFT system. 2. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time- frame for spending it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Central Bank Digital Currencies (CBDCs) are digital forms of a country’s fiat currency which are issued and regulated by the central bank.
Statement 1 is correct: Central Bank Digital Currencies (CB-DCs) can operate independently unlike traditional cross-bor-der payments that rely on the US dollar as a reserve currency and the SWIFT (Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication) system for messaging. It can facilitate direct peer-to-peer (P2P) transactions or cross-border payments without intermediaries like SWIFT. Countries like China (with its digital yuan) and India (exploring the digital rupee) are developing CBDCs to reduce dependence on the US dollar and SWIFT for international transactions. The m-CBDC Bridge project which involves countries like China, Hong Kong, Thailand, and the UAE, is an example of how CB-DCs can enable cross-border payments without relying on the US dollar or SWIFT.
Statement 2 is correct: One of the key features of CBDCs is their programmability. Central banks can embed specific conditions into the digital currency using smart contracts or similar technologies. For instance: A government could issue a digital currency for welfare payments with an expiration date to ensure timely spending and boost economic activity. A CBDC could be programmed to be used only for specific purposes, such as healthcare or education.
UPSC 2023Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q40. Consider the following statements: 1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived. 2. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes. 3. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The SHG movement in In-dia was not initiated by the State Bank of India. The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) played a pivotal role in promoting and scaling up SHGs by providing financial support, capacity-building initiatives, and policy frameworks. In 1992, NABARD launched the SHG-Bank Linkage Programme which facilitated the integration of SHGs into the formal banking system.
Statement 2 is correct: All members of a Self-Help Group (SHG) share responsibility for any loans taken by individual members. This system fosters mutual support and peer account-ability thereby encouraging timely repayments and financial discipline. Generally banks extend loans to the SHG as a single entity, which then distributes funds among its members. In the event of a default, the group collectively ensures repayment, safeguarding its overall creditworthiness.
Statement 3 is correct: Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) play a crucial role in supporting Self-Help Groups (SHGs). As part of the SHG-Bank Linkage Programme launched by NABARD in 1992, these banks extend financial services, including credit, savings, and insurance, to SHGs. This initiative has significantly improved financial inclusion, enabling marginalized communities, particularly rural women, to access formal banking services, build credit histories, and enhance their economic stability.
Exam tip:
S1 aligns with Function-person/organisation/ministry match trap as it’s easy to manipulate to make it false. Is it SBI or NABARD or RBI? Also, S2 and S3 are too general and positive to be false.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
31
2024
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
32
2023
(b) Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations
33
2023
(c) All three
34
2023
(c) Only three
35
2023
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
36
2023
(b) 2 only
37
2023
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
38
2023
(a) Conducting ‘Open Market Operations’
39
2023
(c) Both 1 and 2
40
2023
(b) Only two
What UPSC has tested in Indian Economy
Money and banking questions test how RBI tools work: repo, CRR, open market operations, lender of last resort and the Monetary Policy Committee.
Public finance questions often use small calculations, such as revenue deficit and fiscal deficit in the 2025 paper.
Institutions and publications are tested by who issues what, such as the World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business or the IMF’s World Economic Outlook.
Agriculture and industry questions focus on schemes and prices: MSP, FRP, e-NAM, UDAY and the Rashtriya Gokul Mission.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Indian Economy?
This page covers 392 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Indian Economy, asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
Which Indian Economy chapters have the most questions?
Banking Sector in India has the most with 74 questions, then External Sector of India with 49, Industry with 44, Agriculture with 35 and Important Concepts in Economy and Human Development with 29 and 28.
How can I use these questions to prepare for the Economy section?
Take one chapter at a time using the Chapter filter, attempt the questions, and read the facts UPSC has tested at the end of the page. Repeat the banking and public finance chapters, since they are asked every year.
Are the 2025 Economy questions included?
Yes. The 2025 paper’s 19 Indian Economy questions, on revenue deficit, fiscal deficit, RBI income, RTGS and NEFT, bonds and stocks and the 15th Finance Commission, are included with explanations.